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Card 1 of 24271.1.1
1.1.1
Question

Define a polar molecule.

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Card 11.1.1definition
Question

Define a polar molecule.

Answer

A molecule with an **uneven spread of charge** — a slightly negative end and a slightly positive end.

Card 21.1.1definition
Question

Define a covalent bond.

Answer

A bond in which two atoms **share a pair of electrons**.

Card 31.1.1definition
Question

What is electronegativity?

Answer

How strongly an atom **pulls shared electrons** toward itself.

Card 41.1.1concept
Question

In water, which atom is δ− and why?

Answer

**Oxygen** — it is more electronegative, so it pulls the shared electrons closer.

Card 51.1.1concept
Question

In water, which atoms are δ+?

Answer

The **two hydrogen** atoms.

Card 61.1.1definition
Question

What does δ (delta) mean on an atom?

Answer

A **partial** (slight) charge — much smaller than a full ionic charge.

Card 71.1.1concept
Question

What is the approximate H–O–H bond angle?

Answer

About **104.5°** — the molecule is **bent**.

Card 81.1.1concept
Question

Why is a whole water molecule polar (not just its bonds)?

Answer

Its **bent shape** means the partial charges **do not cancel** — they act on the same side.

Card 91.1.1definition
Question

What type of bond joins O and H within a water molecule?

Answer

A **polar covalent** bond (electrons shared, but unequally).

Card 101.1.1concept
Question

Why does water's polarity matter biologically?

Answer

It lets water molecules attract each other and other charged particles — the basis of water's life-supporting properties.

Card 111.1.2definition
Question

Define a hydrogen bond (in water).

Answer

A **weak attraction** between a **δ+ hydrogen** of one water molecule and a **δ− oxygen** of another molecule.

Card 121.1.2concept
Question

Does a hydrogen bond act within or between water molecules?

Answer

**Between** separate water molecules (a covalent bond acts **within** one molecule).

Card 131.1.2concept
Question

Which two parts attract to form a hydrogen bond?

Answer

A **δ+ hydrogen** of one molecule and a **δ− oxygen** of a neighbouring molecule.

Card 141.1.2concept
Question

Why can water molecules form hydrogen bonds at all?

Answer

Because each molecule is **polar** — it has a δ− oxygen and δ+ hydrogens.

Card 151.1.2concept
Question

Is a hydrogen bond weak or strong compared with a covalent bond?

Answer

**Weak** — much weaker than a covalent bond.

Card 161.1.2concept
Question

If each hydrogen bond is weak, why do they matter?

Answer

Because there are a **huge number** of them, so a **lot of energy** is needed to separate the water molecules.

Card 171.1.2definition
Question

Define a covalent bond.

Answer

A **strong** bond **within** a molecule, where atoms **share a pair of electrons** (the O–H bonds in water).

Card 181.1.2concept
Question

How is a hydrogen bond drawn in a diagram?

Answer

As a **dashed line** from a δ+ hydrogen of one molecule to the δ− oxygen of another, labelled **'hydrogen bond'**.

Card 191.1.2concept
Question

Why is water liquid at room temperature when methane is a gas?

Answer

Water forms **many hydrogen bonds** that hold its molecules together; methane is **non-polar** and forms none.

Card 201.1.2concept
Question

Name two of water's properties that come from hydrogen bonding.

Answer

High **boiling point**, **cohesion** (and a high **heat capacity**) — any two.

Card 211.1.2concept
Question

Can one water molecule hydrogen-bond to more than one neighbour?

Answer

Yes — each molecule can hydrogen-bond to **several** neighbours at once.

Card 221.1.2definition
Question

What does δ (delta) mean on an atom?

Answer

A **partial** (slight) charge — much smaller than a full ionic charge.

Card 231.1.3definition
Question

Define cohesion.

Answer

The attraction of water molecules to **other water molecules** (water sticking to itself).

Card 241.1.3definition
Question

Define adhesion.

Answer

The attraction of water molecules to a **different surface** (water sticking to something else).

Card 251.1.3definition
Question

Define surface tension.

Answer

A 'skin-like' effect at the water surface, caused by **cohesion** pulling the surface molecules together.

Card 261.1.3concept
Question

What causes cohesion and adhesion?

Answer

**Hydrogen bonding** between water molecules, which happens because water is **polar**.

Card 271.1.3concept
Question

Which property lets a pond skater walk on water?

Answer

**Surface tension** (produced by **cohesion**).

Card 281.1.3concept
Question

Water climbing the walls of a narrow xylem vessel is an example of…?

Answer

**Adhesion** — water sticking to a different surface.

Card 291.1.3concept
Question

How does cohesion help transport in plants?

Answer

It holds water in an **unbroken column** in the xylem, so water can be pulled up from roots to leaves.

Card 301.1.3concept
Question

How does adhesion help transport in plants?

Answer

Water sticks to the **walls** of the narrow xylem vessels, helping support and lift the water column.

Card 311.1.3concept
Question

What is the cohesion–tension mechanism?

Answer

Cohesion + adhesion together let an unbroken water column be **pulled up the xylem** from roots to leaves.

Card 321.1.3concept
Question

Cohesion or adhesion: water spreading out and wetting a leaf?

Answer

**Adhesion** — the water sticks to the leaf surface.

Card 331.1.3concept
Question

Cohesion or adhesion: surface tension on a pond?

Answer

**Cohesion** — water molecules pulling on each other at the surface.

Card 341.1.3concept
Question

Why is each hydrogen bond weak but water still cohesive?

Answer

Each bond is weak, but there are **so many** of them that together they hold the molecules tightly.

Card 351.1.4definition
Question

Define specific heat capacity.

Answer

The amount of **heat needed to change the temperature** of a substance. Water's is **high**, so its temperature changes slowly.

Card 361.1.4concept
Question

Why does water have a high specific heat capacity?

Answer

Heating it must **break/stretch many hydrogen bonds** between the polar molecules, which takes a lot of energy.

Card 371.1.4definition
Question

Define heat of vaporisation.

Answer

The **heat needed to turn a liquid into vapour**. Water's is high, so evaporation removes a lot of heat.

Card 381.1.4definition
Question

What is evaporative cooling?

Answer

Cooling caused because **evaporating water carries heat away** from the surface left behind (e.g. sweating).

Card 391.1.4concept
Question

How does sweating cool an organism?

Answer

Evaporating the sweat **takes heat from the skin** (high heat of vaporisation), lowering body temperature.

Card 401.1.4definition
Question

Define thermal conductivity.

Answer

How well a material **lets heat pass through it**. Water conducts heat well, so it draws heat from a warm body.

Card 411.1.4concept
Question

Why does a seal need blubber in cold water?

Answer

Water's **high thermal conductivity** makes it lose body heat fast; **blubber insulates** against this.

Card 421.1.4concept
Question

Why is an aquatic habitat thermally stable?

Answer

Water's **high specific heat capacity** means its temperature changes only slowly, day and night.

Card 431.1.4concept
Question

What single cause underlies water's thermal properties?

Answer

The **hydrogen bonds** between polar water molecules — breaking them costs energy.

Card 441.1.4concept
Question

Compare temperature change in water vs air given the same heat.

Answer

**Water changes far less** (high specific heat capacity); **air swings more widely**.

Card 451.1.4concept
Question

Which property explains why land cools faster than the sea at night?

Answer

Water's **high specific heat capacity** — the sea releases a lot of heat for only a small temperature drop.

Card 461.1.4concept
Question

Name water's three biologically important thermal properties.

Answer

High **specific heat capacity**, high **heat of vaporisation**, and high **thermal conductivity**.

Card 471.1.5definition
Question

Define solvent.

Answer

A liquid that **dissolves** another substance to form a solution. In cells the solvent is **water**.

Card 481.1.5definition
Question

Define solute.

Answer

A substance that **dissolves** in a solvent.

Card 491.1.5concept
Question

Why is water a good solvent?

Answer

It is **polar** — its δ+ and δ− ends are attracted to charged/polar particles and surround them, pulling them into solution.

Card 501.1.5concept
Question

Which kinds of substance dissolve in water?

Answer

**Polar** molecules (e.g. glucose, amino acids) and **ionic** substances (salts, mineral ions).

Card 511.1.5concept
Question

Which kinds of substance do NOT dissolve in water?

Answer

**Non-polar** substances such as **fats and oils** (no charged parts for water to grip).

Card 521.1.5definition
Question

Define hydrophilic.

Answer

“Water-loving” — a **polar/charged** substance that **dissolves** in water.

Card 531.1.5definition
Question

Define hydrophobic.

Answer

“Water-fearing” — a **non-polar** substance that does **not** dissolve in water.

Card 541.1.5concept
Question

Name two life processes that depend on water being a solvent.

Answer

**Metabolism** (reactions between dissolved solutes) and **transport** (carrying dissolved substances).

Card 551.1.5concept
Question

How are dissolved substances transported in plants?

Answer

In **xylem** (water + dissolved minerals) and **phloem** (dissolved sugars).

Card 561.1.5concept
Question

How does a mineral element pass along a food chain?

Answer

It is taken up by plants as **ions dissolved in soil water**, then passed to **animals that eat the plants**.

Card 571.1.5concept
Question

Why can a copper shortage in soil cause a deficiency in a grazing animal?

Answer

Low soil copper → grass takes up **little copper** → the animal eats that grass and takes in **too little copper**.

Card 581.1.5concept
Question

Why must a mineral dissolve before a plant takes it up?

Answer

Roots absorb minerals as **ions in solution**, so the mineral must first **dissolve** in the soil water.

Card 591.2.1definition
Question

What is the monomer of DNA and RNA called?

Answer

A **nucleotide**.

Card 601.2.1definition
Question

Define a nucleotide.

Answer

The monomer of a nucleic acid: a **phosphate group**, a **pentose sugar** and a **nitrogenous base** joined together.

Card 611.2.1concept
Question

What are the three parts of a nucleotide?

Answer

A **phosphate group**, a **pentose (5-carbon) sugar**, and a **nitrogenous base**.

Card 621.2.1concept
Question

Which sugar is in a DNA nucleotide?

Answer

**Deoxyribose**.

Card 631.2.1concept
Question

Which sugar is in an RNA nucleotide?

Answer

**Ribose**.

Card 641.2.1concept
Question

Which base is found in DNA but not RNA?

Answer

**Thymine (T)**.

Card 651.2.1concept
Question

Which base is found in RNA but not DNA?

Answer

**Uracil (U)** — it replaces thymine.

Card 661.2.1concept
Question

Which bases are found in both DNA and RNA?

Answer

**Adenine (A), cytosine (C) and guanine (G)**.

Card 671.2.1concept
Question

How many strands does DNA have? And RNA?

Answer

DNA is **double**-stranded (two); RNA is **single**-stranded (one).

Card 681.2.1concept
Question

Name the three structural differences between DNA and RNA.

Answer

**Sugar** (deoxyribose vs ribose), **one base** (thymine vs uracil), and **number of strands** (double vs single).

Card 691.2.1definition
Question

What is a nitrogenous base?

Answer

The **information-carrying** part of a nucleotide — A, C, G and either T (DNA) or U (RNA).

Card 701.2.1concept
Question

In a nucleotide, what does the sugar join to?

Answer

The sugar sits in the **middle** — joined to the **phosphate** on one side and the **base** on the other.

Card 711.2.2concept
Question

What shape is a DNA molecule?

Answer

A **double helix** — two strands twisted around each other.

Card 721.2.2definition
Question

Define complementary base pairing.

Answer

The rule that **A pairs only with T**, and **G pairs only with C**, on the two DNA strands.

Card 731.2.2concept
Question

Which base pairs with adenine?

Answer

**Thymine (T)**.

Card 741.2.2concept
Question

Which base pairs with guanine?

Answer

**Cytosine (C)**.

Card 751.2.2definition
Question

What kind of bond holds a base pair together?

Answer

**Hydrogen bonds** (between the two bases).

Card 761.2.2concept
Question

How many hydrogen bonds hold an A–T pair? A G–C pair?

Answer

**A–T has 2**; **G–C has 3**.

Card 771.2.2concept
Question

Which parts of DNA are joined across the helix — bases or backbones?

Answer

The **bases** (by hydrogen bonds). The sugar–phosphate backbones are not joined to each other.

Card 781.2.2definition
Question

What does 'antiparallel' mean for DNA strands?

Answer

The two strands run in **opposite directions** to each other.

Card 791.2.2concept
Question

State Chargaff's rule.

Answer

In DNA, **%A = %T** and **%G = %C**.

Card 801.2.2concept
Question

If a DNA sample is 22% cytosine, what % is guanine?

Answer

**22%** — because %G = %C.

Card 811.2.2concept
Question

If A is 30%, what is the combined % of G and C?

Answer

A = T = 30%, so A+T = 60%, leaving **40%** shared by G and C (20% each).

Card 821.2.2concept
Question

Who proposed the double-helix model, and using whose data?

Answer

**Watson and Crick**, using X-ray data from **Rosalind Franklin**.

Card 831.2.3concept
Question

Where in DNA is the genetic information stored?

Answer

In the **sequence (order) of the bases** A, T, C and G along the molecule.

Card 841.2.3concept
Question

Why can DNA store so much information?

Answer

It is a **long** molecule using a **4-letter** code, so the bases can be ordered in an **enormous** number of ways.

Card 851.2.3definition
Question

Define base sequence.

Answer

The **order of the bases** (A, T, C, G) along a DNA strand — this order is the stored information.

Card 861.2.3concept
Question

What makes DNA a STABLE information store?

Answer

Its two **complementary strands** back each other up, and the bases sit protected inside the double helix.

Card 871.2.3definition
Question

Define a histone.

Answer

A **protein** that **DNA wraps around** to package (condense) it inside eukaryotic cells.

Card 881.2.3concept
Question

What do histones do?

Answer

DNA **wraps around** them to **package / condense** the long molecule so it fits inside the cell.

Card 891.2.3definition
Question

Define a chromosome.

Answer

A single long **DNA molecule wound around histones** and condensed into a compact, organised structure.

Card 901.2.3concept
Question

Why must DNA be packaged?

Answer

The DNA molecule is **very long** (about 2 m per human cell) but the cell is tiny, so it must be **condensed** to fit and be protected.

Card 911.2.3concept
Question

Which organisms package DNA with histones?

Answer

**Eukaryotes** (plants, animals, fungi). Most **prokaryotes do not** use histones.

Card 921.2.3concept
Question

Is it the number of bases or their order that stores the message?

Answer

The **order (sequence)** — rearranging the bases changes the message, like rearranging letters changes a word.

Card 931.2.3concept
Question

How is DNA wound around histones described?

Answer

Like **thread around a spool** — the long thread winds up tightly and condenses.

Card 941.2.3concept
Question

Do histones read or copy the DNA?

Answer

**No** — histones only **package** the DNA. Reading and copying are done by other molecules.

Card 951.2.4definition
Question

Define a genome.

Answer

**All of the DNA** of an organism — its complete set of genetic instructions.

Card 961.2.4definition
Question

What is whole genome sequencing?

Answer

Determining the **full order of bases** (A, T, C, G) across an organism's **entire genome**.

Card 971.2.4concept
Question

Genome vs gene — what is the difference?

Answer

A **gene** is one instruction; a **genome** is the **whole instruction book** (all genes + the DNA between).

Card 981.2.4concept
Question

Does a bigger genome mean a more complex organism?

Answer

**No** — some plants and amphibians have larger genomes than humans but are not more complex.

Card 991.2.4concept
Question

Why does a large genome not mean more complexity?

Answer

Much of the extra DNA is **non-coding** — it does not code for proteins.

Card 1001.2.4definition
Question

What is the universal genetic code?

Answer

The same DNA bases code for the **same amino acids** in (almost) **every** living thing.

Card 1011.2.4concept
Question

How does the universal code support common ancestry?

Answer

All life inheriting the **same code** is best explained by descent from a **common ancestor**.

Card 1021.2.4concept
Question

Which cell could supply a complete copy of the human genome?

Answer

The nucleus of **almost any single body cell** (e.g. a white blood cell).

Card 1031.2.4concept
Question

Why is a gamete NOT a complete copy of the genome?

Answer

A gamete (egg or sperm) carries only **half** the genome.

Card 1041.2.4concept
Question

Give two present-day uses of whole genome sequencing.

Answer

**Diagnosing genetic disease / personalising treatment**, and **comparing genomes to map how species are related**.

Card 1051.2.4concept
Question

Give one ethical concern about genome sequencing.

Answer

Concerns over **privacy** and how a person's **genetic data** is stored and used.

Card 1061.2.4concept
Question

What does a 'Discuss' answer on sequencing need?

Answer

**Benefits AND a limitation/ethical concern**, then a clear overall **judgement**.

Card 1071.3.1concept
Question

Why is the cell called the unit of life?

Answer

It is the **smallest self-sustaining unit of life** — it can take in materials, release energy, grow and reproduce on its own. All known life is **cellular**.

Card 1081.3.1concept
Question

When and how did the first cells arise?

Answer

About **3.5–4 billion years ago**, by **abiogenesis** (life from non-living chemistry) on the early Earth — a **unique, one-off** series of events.

Card 1091.3.1definition
Question

Define biogenesis.

Answer

Living cells arise **only from pre-existing living cells** — the rule we observe **today**.

Card 1101.3.1definition
Question

Define abiogenesis.

Answer

Living matter arising from **non-living chemistry** — required for the **first** cell, under early-Earth conditions.

Card 1111.3.1concept
Question

How did early-Earth conditions differ from today?

Answer

**No free oxygen** (reducing atmosphere), **no ozone** (so **intense UV**), **volcanic gases** (CH₄, NH₃, H₂O, CO₂), **lightning**, **high temperatures**, and **liquid water**.

Card 1121.3.1concept
Question

Why did a lack of free oxygen help the first organic molecules?

Answer

With **no oxygen**, the molecules were **not destroyed by oxidation**, so they could **build up** instead of breaking down.

Card 1131.3.1concept
Question

List the four stages from non-living matter to the first cell, in order.

Answer

1) organic **monomers**, 2) **polymers**, 3) **self-replicating** molecules, 4) **membrane-bound protocells**.

Card 1141.3.2definition
Question

What does 'abiotic' synthesis mean?

Answer

Organic molecules forming **without any living organisms** — by chemistry from **inorganic** precursors plus energy.

Card 1151.3.2definition
Question

Define a monomer.

Answer

A small **building-block** molecule; many monomers join to make a **polymer** (e.g. amino acids → proteins).

Card 1161.3.2concept
Question

What gas mixture did Miller and Urey use?

Answer

A **reducing** mix of **methane (CH₄), ammonia (NH₃), hydrogen (H₂) and water vapour** — modelling the early atmosphere.

Card 1171.3.2concept
Question

What did the Miller-Urey experiment produce, and what did it show?

Answer

It produced **amino acids** and other organic monomers, showing that organic molecules can form **abiotically**, without life.

Card 1181.3.2concept
Question

Name two proposed sources of organic molecules OTHER than the early atmosphere.

Answer

**Deep-sea hydrothermal vents** (mineral-catalysed synthesis) and **extraterrestrial delivery** on meteorites (e.g. the **Murchison** meteorite).

Card 1191.3.2concept
Question

Why must monomers form before polymers?

Answer

Polymers are **chains of monomers**, so the building blocks must exist **first** — this is **step 1** of the origin of cells.

Card 1201.3.2concept
Question

Why did a reducing (oxygen-free) atmosphere matter for prebiotic synthesis?

Answer

Free **oxygen** would destroy organic molecules, so the lack of oxygen let the new monomers **survive and accumulate**.

Card 1211.3.3definition
Question

What is a protocell?

Answer

A simple **membrane-bound droplet** that forms by itself in water — a key **step between organic chemistry and true cells**, but **not yet alive**.

Card 1221.3.3concept
Question

How do protocell membranes form, and do they need enzymes?

Answer

**Phospholipids (and fatty acids) self-assemble** into a **bilayer vesicle** in water **spontaneously** — **no enzymes** are needed.

Card 1231.3.3concept
Question

What drives phospholipid self-assembly into a bilayer?

Answer

The **hydrophobic effect** — the water-hating **tails** are pushed together away from water while the **heads** face the water, so a bilayer forms and seals into a vesicle.

Card 1241.3.3definition
Question

Define compartmentalisation.

Answer

Using a **membrane** to separate an **internal space** — with its own contents and chemistry — from the surroundings.

Card 1251.3.3concept
Question

Give the advantages a compartment (membrane) gives a protocell.

Answer

It **concentrates reactants** (faster reactions), **retains products**, gives a **different internal chemistry**, and **protects self-replicating molecules**.

Card 1261.3.3concept
Question

Why was compartmentalisation naturally selected?

Answer

Droplets that concentrated reactants and protected their replicators **reacted faster and reproduced more**, so their type became **more common** — natural selection before true life.

Card 1271.3.3concept
Question

Why is a protocell not considered alive?

Answer

It has a membrane and an inside, but it **lacks reliable heredity** — it cannot copy its contents **accurately**, so it is only a stepping stone to true cells.

Card 1281.3.4concept
Question

Why does heredity require a self-replicating molecule?

Answer

Because evolution needs **inherited variation** — information can only be passed on if the molecule carrying it can be **copied**.

Card 1291.3.4concept
Question

Which molecule is the strongest candidate for the first self-replicating molecule?

Answer

**RNA** — the early stage when it did both jobs is called the **RNA world**.

Card 1301.3.4concept
Question

What two things can RNA do that make it special?

Answer

**Store genetic information** (its base sequence is a code) AND **act as a catalyst** (**ribozymes**).

Card 1311.3.4definition
Question

What is a ribozyme?

Answer

An **RNA molecule that acts as a catalyst** — it folds up and speeds up reactions, the way a protein enzyme does.

Card 1321.3.4concept
Question

Why did DNA take over information storage?

Answer

DNA is **double-stranded** → **more stable** and easier to repair → a **lower mutation rate**, so information is kept more reliably.

Card 1331.3.4concept
Question

Why did proteins take over catalysis?

Answer

Proteins are built from **20 amino acids** (vs RNA's **4 bases**) → far more chemical variety → far more **versatile catalysts**.

Card 1341.3.4concept
Question

Give one piece of evidence that RNA came first.

Answer

The **ribosome's catalytic core is a ribozyme (rRNA)** — the protein-building machine is itself run by RNA. (Also: translation uses mRNA/tRNA/rRNA; ATP & NAD are ribonucleotides.)

Card 1351.3.4concept
Question

What is the proposed order of events?

Answer

**RNA world** → **DNA** takes over **information storage** → **proteins** take over **catalysis**.

Card 1361.3.5definition
Question

What does LUCA stand for, and what is it?

Answer

The **Last Universal Common Ancestor** — the single ancestral population from which **all life alive today** descends.

Card 1371.3.5concept
Question

Is LUCA the first cell ever?

Answer

No — it is the **LAST** (most recent) common ancestor of all surviving life. Earlier cells almost certainly existed.

Card 1381.3.5concept
Question

Name the shared features that are evidence for LUCA.

Answer

A near-universal **genetic code**, **DNA/RNA**, **ATP** as energy currency, **ribosomes**, and **common metabolic pathways** — all best explained by **common ancestry**.

Card 1391.3.5concept
Question

How is the age of LUCA estimated?

Answer

By comparing DNA/protein **sequences** and using the **molecular clock**, giving roughly **4 billion years ago** (likely at hydrothermal vents).

Card 1401.3.5concept
Question

State the endosymbiotic theory for mitochondria.

Answer

A host cell **engulfed a free-living aerobic bacterium** that **survived inside** as an endosymbiont and became the **mitochondrion**.

Card 1411.3.5concept
Question

What are the four pieces of evidence for endosymbiosis?

Answer

Mitochondria/chloroplasts have their own **circular DNA**, **70S ribosomes**, a **double membrane**, and divide by **binary fission** — all bacterial features.

Card 1421.3.5concept
Question

Which bacterium gave rise to chloroplasts?

Answer

A photosynthetic **cyanobacterium** — engulfed and kept as an endosymbiont. (An aerobic bacterium gave the mitochondrion.)

Card 1431.4.1concept
Question

State the three points of cell theory.

Answer

All living things are made of **cells**; the **cell is the basic unit** of life; new cells come only from **pre-existing cells**.

Card 1441.4.1definition
Question

Define spontaneous generation.

Answer

The (disproved) idea that living organisms can form from **non-living material**.

Card 1451.4.1concept
Question

How did Pasteur disprove spontaneous generation?

Answer

Broth in a **swan-neck flask** stayed clear; only when the neck was **broken** (letting air-borne microbes in) did it go cloudy — so cells come from cells.

Card 1461.4.1concept
Question

What does cell theory say is the smallest unit of life?

Answer

The **cell** — there is no smaller living unit.

Card 1471.4.1concept
Question

List the seven functions of life.

Answer

**Metabolism, Reproduction, Sensitivity, Growth, Respiration, Excretion, Nutrition** (MRS GREN).

Card 1481.4.1concept
Question

What is the memory aid for the functions of life?

Answer

**MRS GREN**.

Card 1491.4.1definition
Question

Define excretion.

Answer

The removal of the **waste products of metabolism** from a cell or organism.

Card 1501.4.1definition
Question

Define nutrition.

Answer

Taking in (or making) the **food and nutrients** an organism needs.

Card 1511.4.1definition
Question

What is a unicellular organism?

Answer

An organism made of a **single cell** that carries out **all seven functions of life** by itself.

Card 1521.4.1concept
Question

Why must a single cell perform all functions of life?

Answer

It is a complete organism with **no other cells to help**, so that one cell must do every job needed to stay alive.

Card 1531.4.1concept
Question

Why must even a single cell excrete?

Answer

Its **metabolism produces waste** (e.g. CO₂) that would **build up and become toxic** if not removed.

Card 1541.4.1concept
Question

Which function of life is 'responding to stimuli'?

Answer

**Sensitivity**.

Card 1551.4.2definition
Question

Define magnification.

Answer

How many **times bigger** the image looks than the real object.

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Question

Define resolution.

Answer

The ability to show two close points as **separate** — in short, how much **fine detail** can be seen.

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Question

How are magnification and resolution different?

Answer

Magnification = how much **bigger**; resolution = how much **detail**. Magnifying a blurry image just makes a bigger blur.

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Question

What does a light microscope use to form an image?

Answer

A beam of **light**.

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Question

What does an electron microscope use to form an image?

Answer

A beam of **electrons**.

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Question

Which microscope can view living, moving cells?

Answer

The **light microscope** — electron samples are killed and prepared first.

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Question

Which microscope has the higher resolution?

Answer

The **electron microscope** — much higher resolution than the light microscope.

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Question

How did the electron microscope advance cell biology?

Answer

Its **higher resolution** revealed **organelles and ultrastructure** not visible with the light microscope.

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Question

Define ultrastructure.

Answer

The **fine internal detail** of a cell (e.g. membranes, ribosomes) that only the electron microscope can reveal.

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Question

What is cryo-EM?

Answer

**Cryogenic electron microscopy** — it **freezes** a sample to capture a sharp snapshot of proteins and delicate structures.

Card 1651.4.2concept
Question

Which imaging technique freezes a sample to snapshot a protein?

Answer

**Cryo-EM** (a type of electron microscopy).

Card 1661.4.2concept
Question

One drawback of the electron microscope?

Answer

The sample must be **killed and specially prepared**, so you cannot view living cells.

Card 1671.4.3concept
Question

Name the four structures common to ALL cells.

Answer

**DNA, cytoplasm, plasma membrane and ribosomes** (memory hook: D-C-M-R).

Card 1681.4.3definition
Question

Define an organelle.

Answer

A **specialised structure inside a cell** that carries out a **particular function** (for example a ribosome or nucleus).

Card 1691.4.3concept
Question

Which universal structure is also an organelle?

Answer

**Ribosomes** — found in all cells and counting as an organelle.

Card 1701.4.3definition
Question

What does DNA do in a cell?

Answer

It is the **genetic material** — the cell's stored instructions.

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Question

What is cytoplasm?

Answer

The **watery jelly** inside the cell where chemical reactions take place.

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Question

What does the plasma membrane do?

Answer

It is the cell's **outer boundary**, controlling what **enters and leaves**.

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Question

What is the function of ribosomes?

Answer

They **build proteins** by joining amino acids together.

Card 1741.4.3concept
Question

Is a nucleus common to all cells? Why?

Answer

**No** — prokaryotic cells have **no nucleus**; their DNA floats free in the cytoplasm.

Card 1751.4.3concept
Question

Name an organelle in which a DNA base pair could be located.

Answer

The **nucleus** (in eukaryotes). **Mitochondria** also contain DNA, and **chloroplasts** do in plant cells.

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Question

Where is the DNA in a prokaryotic cell?

Answer

Free in the **cytoplasm**, in a region called the **nucleoid** — there is no nucleus.

Card 1771.4.3concept
Question

Name two structures that are NOT found in every cell.

Answer

Any two of: **nucleus, cell wall, mitochondria, chloroplasts** (these are not universal).

Card 1781.4.3definition
Question

Define a prokaryotic cell.

Answer

A cell with **no nucleus** and **no membrane-bound organelles** (for example a bacterium).

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Question

Define a eukaryotic cell.

Answer

A cell **with a nucleus** and membrane-bound organelles (for example animal, plant and fungal cells).

Card 1801.4.3concept
Question

Which structure should you pick for 'found in all domains of life'?

Answer

**Ribosomes** — universal and also an organelle; never answer 'nucleus'.

Card 1811.4.4definition
Question

Define a prokaryotic cell.

Answer

A cell with **no nucleus** and **no membrane-bound organelles**; its DNA lies free in the cytoplasm. All **bacteria** are prokaryotic.

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Question

Define a eukaryotic cell.

Answer

A cell with a **true (membrane-bound) nucleus** holding the DNA, plus other membrane-bound organelles. **Animal, plant and fungal** cells are eukaryotic.

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Question

What is the single biggest difference between the two cell types?

Answer

Prokaryotes have **no nucleus**; eukaryotes have a **true nucleus** enclosing the DNA.

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Question

How is DNA organised in a prokaryotic cell?

Answer

As **one circular loop**, lying **naked** (no histones) in the cytoplasm, often with small extra rings (**plasmids**).

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Question

How is DNA organised in a eukaryotic cell?

Answer

As **linear chromosomes** wound around **histones**, sealed inside the **nucleus**.

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Question

What is a histone?

Answer

A **protein** that eukaryotic DNA wraps around to package its long chromosomes. Prokaryotic DNA has **no histones**.

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Question

What is a plasmid?

Answer

A **small extra ring of DNA** in many prokaryotes, separate from the main DNA loop.

Card 1881.4.4concept
Question

Name four structures BOTH cell types share.

Answer

**Plasma membrane**, **cytoplasm**, **DNA** and **ribosomes**.

Card 1891.4.4concept
Question

State the function of a flagellum in a prokaryote.

Answer

It rotates like a propeller to **move the cell** through liquid.

Card 1901.4.4concept
Question

State the function of ribosomes.

Answer

They are the site of **protein synthesis** (building proteins from amino acids).

Card 1911.4.4concept
Question

Compare prokaryote and eukaryote ribosome size.

Answer

Prokaryote ribosomes are **smaller (70S)**; eukaryote ribosomes are **larger (80S)**.

Card 1921.4.4concept
Question

Which cell type is usually larger?

Answer

**Eukaryotic** (about 10–100 µm) vs **prokaryotic** (about 1–5 µm).

Card 1931.4.5concept
Question

What type of cell are animal, plant and fungal cells?

Answer

All are **eukaryotic** — they have a nucleus and membrane-bound organelles.

Card 1941.4.5definition
Question

Define cell wall.

Answer

A **rigid layer outside the cell membrane** that gives a cell a fixed shape and support.

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Question

What is a plant cell wall made of?

Answer

**Cellulose**.

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Question

What is a fungal cell wall made of?

Answer

**Chitin** (not cellulose).

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Question

Which cell type has no cell wall?

Answer

**Animal cells** — they have only a flexible cell membrane.

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Question

Which organelle is found only in plant cells?

Answer

**Chloroplasts** — the site of photosynthesis.

Card 1991.4.5concept
Question

Why does an animal cell look irregular while a plant cell stays regular?

Answer

The plant cell has a **rigid cell wall** holding a fixed shape; the animal cell has **no wall**, so its membrane is easily squashed.

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Question

What is the large vacuole in a plant cell for?

Answer

It is a fluid-filled sac that **keeps the cell firm**; animal cells have only small temporary vacuoles.

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Question

Define an atypical cell.

Answer

A cell that breaks the usual rule of having **one nucleus** — either anucleate or multinucleate.

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Question

Give an example of an anucleate cell and why.

Answer

A mature **red blood cell** — it **loses its nucleus**, leaving more room to carry oxygen.

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Question

Give two examples of multinucleate cells.

Answer

**Skeletal muscle fibres** and **fungal hyphae** — one long cell with **many nuclei**.

Card 2041.4.6definition
Question

What is a micrograph?

Answer

A **photograph** of a specimen taken through a **microscope**.

Card 2051.4.6definition
Question

What is an electron micrograph?

Answer

A micrograph taken with an **electron microscope** — high enough magnification to see small organelles such as mitochondria.

Card 2061.4.6definition
Question

Define an organelle.

Answer

A structure inside a cell that does a **specific job** (for example the nucleus or a mitochondrion).

Card 2071.4.6concept
Question

What is the first clue to look for when reading a micrograph?

Answer

Whether there is a **nucleus** — no nucleus means **prokaryotic**.

Card 2081.4.6concept
Question

In a micrograph, how do you know a cell is prokaryotic?

Answer

**No nucleus** and **no membrane-bound organelles**; the DNA lies **free in the cytoplasm**, and the cell is **small**.

Card 2091.4.6concept
Question

In a micrograph, how do you know a cell is eukaryotic?

Answer

It has a **nucleus** and **membrane-bound organelles** (such as mitochondria).

Card 2101.4.6concept
Question

Plant vs animal cell in a micrograph — how do you tell?

Answer

A **plant** cell has a **cell wall** and often **chloroplasts**; an **animal** cell has **neither**.

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Question

Cell wall but no chloroplasts — which cell type?

Answer

A **fungal** cell (its wall is made of **chitin**).

Card 2121.4.6concept
Question

What must a 'Deduce' answer about a micrograph include?

Answer

The **cell type** AND a **visible feature** as the reason (for example 'no nucleus, so prokaryotic').

Card 2131.4.6concept
Question

Name four features to label when drawing a nucleus from an electron micrograph.

Answer

The **double membrane (nuclear envelope)**, the **nuclear pores**, the **chromatin** and the **nucleolus**.

Card 2141.4.6concept
Question

Why draw the nuclear envelope as two lines?

Answer

Because it is a **double membrane** — drawing a single line is the most common lost mark.

Card 2151.4.6concept
Question

Roughly how large is a typical prokaryotic cell?

Answer

Small — about **1–5 μm** across (eukaryotic cells are usually much larger).

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Question

How do you identify a mitochondrion in an electron micrograph?

Answer

It is **oval** (sausage-shaped) with folded inner membranes called **cristae**.

Card 2171.4.6concept
Question

How do you tell rough ER from smooth ER in a micrograph?

Answer

**Rough ER** has membranes **studded with ribosomes** (dots); **smooth ER** has a **plain surface with no dots**.

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Question

How do you identify the Golgi apparatus in a micrograph?

Answer

It looks like a **stack of flattened, curved sacs**, often with small vesicles nearby.

Card 2191.5.1definition
Question

Define a virus.

Answer

A **non-cellular infectious particle**: a **nucleic acid genome (DNA or RNA)** inside a **protein capsid**, sometimes with a lipid envelope. It replicates only inside a host cell.

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Question

Why is a virus called non-cellular (acellular)?

Answer

It has **no cytoplasm, organelles, ribosomes or metabolism** — it is not built from cells.

Card 2211.5.1definition
Question

What two parts does every virus have?

Answer

A **genome** (DNA or RNA) and a **protein capsid** (built from capsomere sub-units).

Card 2221.5.1definition
Question

What is a capsid?

Answer

The **protein coat** surrounding a virus's genome, made of repeating sub-units called **capsomeres**; it protects the genome and helps attach to a host.

Card 2231.5.1concept
Question

What are the envelope and glycoprotein spikes for?

Answer

The **lipid envelope** (from the host membrane) surrounds the capsid; the **spikes** bind **specific host-cell receptors** so the virus can attach and enter.

Card 2241.5.1concept
Question

Name three ways viruses are diverse.

Answer

**Size**; **capsid shape** (helical / icosahedral / complex); and **genome type** (DNA vs RNA, single- vs double-stranded).

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Question

What does 'obligate intracellular parasite' mean?

Answer

The virus **has no choice** but to be inside a **host cell** to replicate, using the host's **ribosomes and machinery**.

Card 2261.5.2definition
Question

Define a virulent virus.

Answer

A virus that immediately runs the **lytic cycle**, **killing the host cell** to reproduce.

Card 2271.5.2concept
Question

List the five steps of the lytic cycle, in order.

Answer

**Attachment → Entry → Replication/synthesis → Assembly → Lysis/release.**

Card 2281.5.2concept
Question

What happens at the ATTACHMENT step, and why does it matter?

Answer

The virus **binds a specific receptor** on the host surface. The match decides which cells it can infect — it sets the **host range**.

Card 2291.5.2concept
Question

What enters the host cell at the ENTRY step?

Answer

Only the **viral genome** (DNA or RNA) is injected; the empty protein coat is left outside.

Card 2301.5.2concept
Question

How does a virus replicate during the lytic cycle?

Answer

It **hijacks the host's machinery** — enzymes, ribosomes, nucleotides and ATP — to copy its genome and make capsid proteins.

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Question

What is lysis, and what is the net effect of the lytic cycle?

Answer

**Lysis** = the host cell **bursting and dying**, releasing many new viruses. Net effect = **rapid amplification of the virus + host-cell death**.

Card 2321.5.3definition
Question

What is a temperate phage?

Answer

A bacteriophage that can take **either** the **lytic** cycle (kill the host now) **or** the **lysogenic** cycle (integrate and lie dormant).

Card 2331.5.3definition
Question

What is the lysogenic cycle?

Answer

The pathway where a phage's DNA **integrates into the host chromosome** and is copied with it, **without** making new virus or killing the cell.

Card 2341.5.3definition
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What is a prophage?

Answer

Phage DNA that has **integrated into the host chromosome** and lies **dormant** there.

Card 2351.5.3concept
Question

How is a prophage replicated?

Answer

**Passively** — the host's own machinery copies the whole chromosome (prophage included) at every cell division, so it passes into **all daughter cells**.

Card 2361.5.3definition
Question

What is induction?

Answer

A trigger (**stress, UV light or DNA damage**) that makes the prophage **excise** from the chromosome and switch to the **lytic** cycle.

Card 2371.5.3concept
Question

Lytic vs lysogenic — the key contrast?

Answer

**Lytic** = make virus **now** and **kill** the host. **Lysogenic** = **integrate** as a prophage, no immediate harm, can **later** turn lytic.

Card 2381.5.3concept
Question

How does a prophage spread without making virus?

Answer

It is **copied passively** with the host chromosome at each division, so every **daughter cell inherits it** — vertical transmission, no virions released.

Card 2391.5.4definition
Question

What is a retrovirus?

Answer

An **enveloped RNA virus** that carries the enzyme **reverse transcriptase**. HIV is the classic example.

Card 2401.5.4definition
Question

What does reverse transcriptase do?

Answer

It makes a **DNA copy from an RNA template** (RNA → DNA) — the **reverse** of normal transcription (which goes DNA → RNA).

Card 2411.5.4concept
Question

Why is it called 'reverse' transcription?

Answer

Normal transcription goes **DNA → RNA**; reverse transcription goes **RNA → DNA** — the opposite direction.

Card 2421.5.4definition
Question

What is a provirus?

Answer

The **viral DNA after it has integrated** into the host cell's own DNA. The host then transcribes it to make new virus.

Card 2431.5.4concept
Question

Which cells does HIV infect, and what does destroying them cause?

Answer

HIV infects **helper T-lymphocytes (CD4 cells)**. Destroying them weakens the immune system, causing **AIDS**.

Card 2441.5.4concept
Question

Why does HIV mutate so quickly?

Answer

**Reverse transcriptase has no proofreading**, so its copying errors are not corrected — giving a **high mutation rate** and rapid evolution.

Card 2451.5.4concept
Question

Why is HIV hard to treat and to vaccinate against?

Answer

Its fast mutation lets it **evolve drug resistance** (so combination antiretrovirals are used) and **escape the immune system** (so no effective vaccine yet).

Card 2461.5.4concept
Question

Why is reverse transcriptase a good drug target?

Answer

It is an enzyme **your own cells don't have**, so blocking it stops the virus copying its RNA into DNA while largely sparing your cells.

Card 2471.5.5definition
Question

What does it mean that viruses are probably 'polyphyletic'?

Answer

They have **multiple independent origins** — viruses probably arose **several separate times**, not from one common ancestor.

Card 2481.5.5concept
Question

Name the three hypotheses for the origin of viruses.

Answer

**Escape** (host genes/mobile elements gained a capsid), **reduction** (free-living parasitic cells lost genes), and **virus-first** (self-replicating molecules co-evolved with early cells).

Card 2491.5.5concept
Question

Why is the origin of viruses 'uncertain'?

Answer

Viruses are non-cellular and leave no fossils, and each hypothesis explains only **some** viruses — so there is **no single agreed origin**.

Card 2501.5.5concept
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Why do viruses evolve so rapidly?

Answer

**Huge populations + very short generation times + high mutation rates** mean **natural selection** acts on them extremely fast.

Card 2511.5.5concept
Question

Why do RNA viruses mutate especially fast?

Answer

Their **polymerases lack proofreading**, so many copying errors (mutations) accumulate each generation.

Card 2521.5.5definition
Question

Antigenic drift vs antigenic shift?

Answer

**Drift** = small, gradual mutations in the surface proteins. **Shift** = a large, sudden change when two strains **swap whole genome segments**.

Card 2531.5.5concept
Question

Why must flu and COVID vaccines be updated?

Answer

Variants with **changed surface proteins** escape existing immunity and are **selected for**, so the circulating strain no longer matches the old vaccine.

Card 2541.6.1definition
Question

Define a species.

Answer

A group of organisms that can **interbreed** and produce **fertile offspring**.

Card 2551.6.1definition
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What is the biological species concept?

Answer

Defining a species by the ability to **interbreed** and produce **fertile offspring**.

Card 2561.6.1definition
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What does 'fertile offspring' mean?

Answer

Young that are themselves **able to reproduce**.

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What is a hybrid?

Answer

The offspring of a cross between **two different species** (e.g. a mule).

Card 2581.6.1definition
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What does 'sterile' mean?

Answer

**Unable to reproduce** — cannot produce offspring of its own.

Card 2591.6.1concept
Question

Are a horse and a donkey the same species? Why?

Answer

**No** — they produce a **mule**, which is **sterile**, so they are different species.

Card 2601.6.1concept
Question

Why is 'they can breed' not a full definition of species?

Answer

It leaves out that the offspring must be **fertile** — sterile young mean the parents are different species.

Card 2611.6.1concept
Question

Are two very different dog breeds the same species?

Answer

**Yes** — they can interbreed and give fertile pups; breed differences are just variation within one species.

Card 2621.6.1definition
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What is a karyotype?

Answer

An organism's full set of **chromosomes**, shown by their **number, size and shape**.

Card 2631.6.1concept
Question

How can karyotyping help decide if two organisms are the same species?

Answer

**Matching** chromosome number/pattern supports the **same** species; clearly **different** karyotypes suggest different species.

Card 2641.6.1concept
Question

Name two cases where the biological species concept is hard to apply.

Answer

Organisms that **do not reproduce sexually** (e.g. bacteria) and **fossils**.

Card 2651.6.1concept
Question

What is the offspring of a horse and a donkey called?

Answer

A **mule** — a sterile **hybrid**.

Card 2661.6.2definition
Question

Define binomial nomenclature.

Answer

The system of naming each species with a **two-part Latin name**: **genus + species**.

Card 2671.6.2concept
Question

In a binomial name, which word is the genus?

Answer

The **first** word (it is capitalised), e.g. **Panthera** in **Panthera leo**.

Card 2681.6.2concept
Question

In a binomial name, which word is the species?

Answer

The **second** word (it is lower-case); it only has meaning alongside its genus.

Card 2691.6.2definition
Question

Define genus.

Answer

A group of **closely related species** — the first word of a scientific name.

Card 2701.6.2concept
Question

How is a binomial name written in print?

Answer

In **italics**, with the genus **capitalised** and the species **lower-case**.

Card 2711.6.2concept
Question

How do you write a binomial name by hand?

Answer

**Underline** each word (since you can't italicise by hand); genus still capitalised, species lower-case.

Card 2721.6.2concept
Question

Who created binomial nomenclature?

Answer

**Carl Linnaeus**, in the 1700s.

Card 2731.6.2definition
Question

What is the morphological species concept?

Answer

Linnaeus's idea of grouping organisms into species by their **shared physical features / appearance**.

Card 2741.6.2concept
Question

Two species share the same genus. What does that tell you?

Answer

They are **more closely related** than two species placed in **different genera**.

Card 2751.6.2concept
Question

Felis catus and Felis silvestris — how related are they?

Answer

**Closely related** — they share the genus **Felis** (the same first word).

Card 2761.6.2concept
Question

Why can't the species word be used on its own?

Answer

It has **no meaning without its genus** — different genera can reuse the same species word.

Card 2771.6.2concept
Question

Why do scientists use binomial names instead of common names?

Answer

Common names vary between languages and regions; a binomial name is **one agreed name** for each species worldwide.

Card 2781.6.3concept
Question

What are the four eukaryote kingdoms?

Answer

**Plants, animals, fungi and protists.**

Card 2791.6.3definition
Question

Define a eukaryote.

Answer

An organism whose cells have a **nucleus** (and membrane-bound organelles).

Card 2801.6.3concept
Question

What is a plant cell wall made of?

Answer

**Cellulose.**

Card 2811.6.3concept
Question

What is a fungal cell wall made of?

Answer

**Chitin.**

Card 2821.6.3definition
Question

Define an autotroph.

Answer

An organism that **makes its own food** from simple inorganic molecules (e.g. by photosynthesis).

Card 2831.6.3definition
Question

Define a heterotroph.

Answer

An organism that obtains food by **taking in organic molecules** made by other organisms.

Card 2841.6.3definition
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Define a mixotroph.

Answer

An organism that can feed as an **autotroph OR a heterotroph**, depending on conditions.

Card 2851.6.3definition
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What is holozoic nutrition?

Answer

Heterotrophic feeding where food is taken **into the body and digested internally** (as animals do).

Card 2861.6.3definition
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What is saprotrophic nutrition?

Answer

Heterotrophic feeding where enzymes digest **dead matter outside** the body, then the products are absorbed (as fungi do).

Card 2871.6.3concept
Question

Which two kingdoms have a cell wall, and what differs?

Answer

**Plants** (cellulose) and **fungi** (chitin) — same idea, different material.

Card 2881.6.3concept
Question

If a cell has chloroplasts, what mode of nutrition is possible?

Answer

**Autotrophic** — chloroplasts let it make its own food by photosynthesis.

Card 2891.6.3concept
Question

Why are protists grouped into one kingdom?

Answer

They are the **'everything else'** eukaryotes — mostly **unicellular** and not fitting plants, animals or fungi.

Card 2901.6.4definition
Question

What is an identifying feature of a group?

Answer

A feature that **tells the group apart** from others (e.g. feathers for birds), not just any feature the organism has.

Card 2911.6.4concept
Question

Two identifying features of mammals?

Answer

**Fur/hair** and **feeding young on milk** (from mammary glands).

Card 2921.6.4concept
Question

Two identifying features of birds?

Answer

**Feathers** and a **beak** (no teeth); they also lay hard-shelled eggs.

Card 2931.6.4concept
Question

Three identifying features of fish?

Answer

**Scales**, **gills** and **fins**; they live in water.

Card 2941.6.4concept
Question

Identifying feature of amphibians?

Answer

**Moist smooth skin**; they live partly in water and lay jelly-covered eggs in water.

Card 2951.6.4concept
Question

How do flowering plants differ from mosses?

Answer

Flowering plants have **true roots, vascular tissue and flowers/seeds**; mosses have **none** and reproduce by **spores**.

Card 2961.6.4concept
Question

How do mosses (bryophytes) reproduce?

Answer

By **spores** — they have no flowers or seeds.

Card 2971.6.4concept
Question

Which phylum has stinging cells and a single gut opening?

Answer

**Cnidarians** (e.g. jellyfish, sea anemones).

Card 2981.6.4concept
Question

Identifying feature of a mollusc?

Answer

A **soft body**, often protected by a **shell** (e.g. snail, octopus).

Card 2991.6.4concept
Question

Identifying feature of an arthropod?

Answer

A hard **exoskeleton** and **jointed legs** (e.g. insects, spiders, crabs).

Card 3001.6.4concept
Question

Identifying feature of an annelid?

Answer

A long body built from many similar **ring-like segments** (e.g. earthworm).

Card 3011.6.4definition
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Define vertebrate.

Answer

An animal with a **backbone** (a column of bones along its back).

Card 3021.6.4concept
Question

What does each branch point (node) on a cladogram represent?

Answer

A **common ancestor**. Groups meeting at a **more recent node** are **more closely related**.

Card 3031.6.4concept
Question

What evidence are modern classifications and cladograms built from?

Answer

**Molecular evidence** — comparing the **amino-acid sequence** of a shared protein (e.g. myoglobin) or the **DNA base sequence**. Fewer differences ⇒ more recent common ancestor.

Card 3041.6.4concept
Question

If two organisms are in the same genus (or family/order), what does that tell you?

Answer

They share **characteristics inherited from a common ancestor** — the shared rank reflects a recent common ancestry.

Card 3051.6.5definition
Question

Define a dichotomous key.

Answer

An identification tool made of **paired either/or choices** about observable features, each leading to another step or to an organism's **name**.

Card 3061.6.5definition
Question

What does 'dichotomous' mean?

Answer

**Split into two** — every step offers exactly **two** opposite choices.

Card 3071.6.5concept
Question

Where do you always start when using a key?

Answer

At **Step 1** (the top), then follow the matching choices in order.

Card 3081.6.5definition
Question

Define an observable feature.

Answer

A characteristic you can **see or measure** directly — e.g. legs, shell, scales, wings.

Card 3091.6.5definition
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What does it mean when an organism 'keys out'?

Answer

The key has reached the point that **names (identifies)** the organism.

Card 3101.6.5concept
Question

How many choices does each step of a dichotomous key give?

Answer

**Two** — a pair of opposite either/or statements.

Card 3111.6.5concept
Question

Why must key choices be opposite and clear?

Answer

So every organism fits **exactly one** side at each step, with **no overlap**.

Card 3121.6.5concept
Question

Why is 'lives in a pond' a poor choice for a key step?

Answer

Habitat is **not a body feature** — a key must use features you can **observe** on the organism.

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Question

How should you move through a key at each step?

Answer

Follow **only the choice that matches** your organism, then go to the step or name it points to.

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Why is it useful to write down your route through a key (e.g. 1 → 3 → snail)?

Answer

It shows the **correct path** for the marks and helps you **avoid careless slips**.

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Question

Should you identify an organism from its name or its features?

Answer

From its **observable features** — follow the key; never guess from the name.

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Question

What is a couplet (step) in a key?

Answer

One **numbered pair** of opposite statements; you pick the one that matches the organism.

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Question

Define a unicellular organism.

Answer

A living organism whose **whole body is a single cell**.

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Question

What is a 'function of life'?

Answer

A **life process every living organism must carry out** to stay alive (e.g. nutrition, response, reproduction).

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Question

List the seven functions of life.

Answer

**Nutrition, metabolism, growth, response, excretion, homeostasis, reproduction.**

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Question

Why must a single cell perform all functions of life?

Answer

It has **no tissues or organs** to share the work — the **one cell** must do everything itself.

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Question

Which function does a food vacuole show?

Answer

**Nutrition** — taking in nutrients/food.

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Question

Which function does a contractile vacuole show?

Answer

**Homeostasis** — it pumps out excess water to keep the internal water balance stable.

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Question

Why is a contractile vacuole NOT excretion?

Answer

The water it removes entered by **osmosis** and is **not a metabolic waste** — excretion removes metabolic waste like CO₂.

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Question

Which function is shown by releasing CO₂?

Answer

**Excretion** — removing a waste product of metabolism.

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Question

Which function is shown by moving toward food?

Answer

**Response** — reacting to a stimulus in the surroundings.

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Question

Define binary fission.

Answer

Reproduction in which **one cell divides into two identical cells**.

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Question

Which function is shown when a cell divides into two?

Answer

**Reproduction** (by binary fission).

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Question

Name two examples of unicellular organisms.

Answer

Any two of: **Paramecium, Amoeba, Euglena, Chlamydomonas, bacteria.**

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Question

Define a clade.

Answer

A group consisting of a **common ancestor AND all of its descendants** — a **monophyletic** group / a complete branch of the tree of life.

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Question

What does 'monophyletic' mean?

Answer

Tracing back to **one common ancestor**, with **all** of that ancestor's descendants included — another word for a clade.

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Question

Natural vs artificial classification?

Answer

**Natural** = grouped by real **common ancestry** (so each group is a clade). **Artificial** = grouped by convenient **surface features**, which can lump unrelated species together.

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Question

Homologous trait — what is it, and is it useful for classification?

Answer

A feature **inherited from a shared common ancestor**. **Useful** — it groups genuine relatives.

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Analogous trait — what is it, and why is it misleading?

Answer

A similar feature that evolved **independently** by **convergent evolution**. **Misleading** — it reflects lifestyle, not ancestry, so it would group unrelated species.

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Question

What kind of trait defines a clade in cladistics?

Answer

A **shared derived (homologous) trait** — one that first appeared in a common ancestor and was passed to **all** of its descendants.

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Question

Why aren't a dolphin and a shark in the same clade despite their similar shape?

Answer

Their streamlined shape is **analogous** (convergent evolution for fast swimming), not inherited from a recent shared ancestor. A dolphin is a **mammal**, a shark a **fish**.

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Question

What is a cladogram?

Answer

A branching **tree-diagram** showing the **most probable evolutionary relationships** among groups (clades), based on the best current evidence.

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What does a node on a cladogram represent?

Answer

A **common ancestor** — the point where one ancestral lineage **diverged (split)** into two lineages.

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How do you find the two most closely related groups?

Answer

Find the pair whose branches meet at the **most recent node** (nearest the tips) — they share the **most recent common ancestor**.

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What is the root of a cladogram?

Answer

The **deepest (oldest) node**, on the far left — the **common ancestor of every group** on the tree.

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Why are some groups more distantly related than others?

Answer

Their branches meet only at a **deep node (near the root)**, so their **common ancestor is much older** — they diverged earlier.

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Why is a cladogram only a hypothesis?

Answer

It shows the **most probable** relationships from the **evidence available** (now mainly DNA). New evidence can lead to it being **revised**.

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What is molecular evidence in classification?

Answer

Data from **molecular sequences** — the **base sequence** of a gene or the **amino-acid sequence** of a protein — used to work out how closely species are related.

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Question

Name two kinds of molecule compared to build cladograms.

Answer

A **gene's base sequence** (e.g. the **rRNA** gene) and a **protein's amino-acid sequence** (e.g. **haemoglobin**).

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What do MORE sequence differences between two species mean?

Answer

They **diverged longer ago** (more time for mutations to accumulate) and are **more distantly related**.

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What do FEWER sequence differences mean?

Answer

A **more recent** split — the species are **more closely related**.

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What is the molecular clock?

Answer

Because **neutral mutations** accumulate at a **roughly constant rate**, the **number of sequence differences** can **estimate the time** since two species shared a common ancestor.

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Give one strength and one caution of the molecular clock.

Answer

**Strength:** it is objective/quantitative and works even **without fossils**. **Caution:** rates **vary between genes and lineages**, so it must be **calibrated against fossils**.

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What is a clade?

Answer

A group made of **one common ancestor and ALL of its descendants** — nothing left out, nothing unrelated added in.

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What does 'monophyletic' mean?

Answer

It describes a **valid clade** — an **ancestor plus all its descendants**. Cladistics aims to make every named group monophyletic.

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Question

When are organisms reclassified by cladistics?

Answer

When **molecular/cladistic (DNA) evidence conflicts** with the traditional **morphology-based** grouping, showing the old group is **not a clade**.

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Question

Why was the figwort family (Scrophulariaceae) split?

Answer

**DNA** showed its members did **not share a single common ancestor** (it was not a clade), so it was **split and reorganised** into several smaller true clades.

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Question

Why are birds placed inside the reptile clade?

Answer

Cladistics places birds **inside the dinosaur/reptile lineage** (closest to crocodiles); a 'reptile' group without birds is **paraphyletic**, so to be a clade it must **include birds**.

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Question

Why might a species be moved between genera?

Answer

If **DNA** shows its true closest relatives are in a **different genus**, it is **moved (and renamed)** so the genus stays a **monophyletic clade**.

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What does reclassification tell us about classification?

Answer

That it is **provisional and evidence-led** — the **current best hypothesis** of relationships, open to revision when better molecular data arrives.

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Why can grouping by appearance (morphology) mislead?

Answer

Unrelated species can **look alike** (convergent evolution) and close relatives can **look very different**, so a looks-based group may mix lineages or split real ones.

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Define evolution.

Answer

The **change in the heritable characteristics of a population over generations** (a change in allele frequency).

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What are the three key words in the definition of evolution?

Answer

**Heritable**, **population**, and **over generations**.

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At the genetic level, evolution is a change in what?

Answer

**Allele frequency** in the **gene pool** of a population.

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Define an allele.

Answer

One particular **version of a gene** (e.g. a dark or a light allele for fur colour).

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Define allele frequency.

Answer

How **common** a particular allele is in the gene pool (its proportion).

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What is a gene pool?

Answer

All the **alleles** present in a whole **population**.

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Can a single individual evolve?

Answer

**No** — evolution happens to a **population over generations**, not to one organism.

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Why must an evolutionary change be heritable?

Answer

Only **genetic** features can be **passed to offspring** — learned or lifestyle changes are not inherited.

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Define a population (for evolution).

Answer

All the members of **one species** in an area that can **interbreed**.

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Is a suntan an example of evolution? Why/why not?

Answer

**No** — it is a **non-heritable** change in **one individual** within its lifetime.

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Question

A resistant allele becomes more common in a bacterial population over generations. Is this evolution?

Answer

**Yes** — it is a heritable change in **allele frequency** of a **population over generations**.

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Over what timescale does evolution act?

Answer

Across **many generations** — not within a single lifetime.

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Define homologous structures.

Answer

Structures with the **same basic plan but different functions**, inherited from a **common ancestor** (e.g. human arm, bat wing, whale flipper).

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Define analogous structures.

Answer

Structures with a **similar function but a different basic plan** and no recent shared ancestor for that feature (e.g. bird wing vs insect wing).

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What is divergent evolution?

Answer

One ancestral form gives rise to **several different forms** — it produces **homologous** structures.

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What is convergent evolution?

Answer

Unrelated species under similar conditions evolve **similar features independently** — it produces **analogous** structures.

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Which is the strongest evidence for evolution?

Answer

**DNA / base-sequence comparison** — more shared sequence means more closely related species.

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Question

List the main lines of evidence for evolution.

Answer

**Homologous structures, fossils, biogeography, selective breeding and DNA base sequences.**

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Homologous structures are evidence of which evolution type?

Answer

**Divergent** evolution — one common ancestor, then modified for different jobs.

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Analogous structures are evidence of which evolution type?

Answer

**Convergent** evolution — similar features evolved separately under the same selection pressure.

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Why is selective breeding evidence for evolution?

Answer

It shows that **heritable characteristics of a population can change** quickly when there is selection — here, by humans.

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Why is Lamarckism NOT valid evidence for evolution?

Answer

Traits **gained during an organism's life are not heritable**, so they cannot be passed on; evolution acts only on heritable variation.

Card 3781.8.2concept
Question

How do you tell homologous from analogous structures?

Answer

Homologous = **same plan, different job** (common ancestor); analogous = **same job, different plan** (convergent).

Card 3791.8.2concept
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Why does DNA evidence strengthen the case from body plans?

Answer

DNA is an **independent** clue — when a DNA cladogram agrees with one built from anatomy, two separate lines of evidence point to the same ancestry.

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Question

On a cladogram, how do you find a species' closest relative?

Answer

Trace both branches **back to the node where they meet**; the pair that join at the **most recent (lowest) node** share a common ancestor most recently, so they are the **most closely related**.

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Question

What does a node (branch point) on a cladogram represent?

Answer

The **most recent common ancestor** of all the species above that point.

Card 3821.8.3concept
Question

Name the three sources of heritable variation.

Answer

**Mutation**, **meiosis** and **sexual reproduction**.

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Which source creates brand-new alleles?

Answer

**Mutation** — a random change to DNA. (Meiosis and sexual reproduction only make new combinations.)

Card 3841.8.3definition
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Define natural selection.

Answer

The process where individuals **best suited to the environment survive and reproduce more**, passing on their alleles.

Card 3851.8.3definition
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Define evolution.

Answer

A **change in the heritable characteristics (allele frequencies)** of a population over many generations.

Card 3861.8.3concept
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Why must variation be heritable to drive natural selection?

Answer

Only **gene-based (allele)** variation can be **passed to offspring**; traits gained during life are not inherited.

Card 3871.8.3definition
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What is an adaptation?

Answer

An **inherited feature** that makes an organism **better suited to its environment**.

Card 3881.8.3concept
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What is the 'outcome' of natural selection?

Answer

A **favourable allele becomes more common** in the population over generations.

Card 3891.8.3concept
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Does the environment create the helpful variation?

Answer

**No** — the variation is **already present** (mostly from past mutations); the environment only **selects** it.

Card 3901.8.3concept
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Why is competition important for natural selection?

Answer

More offspring are produced than can survive, so individuals **compete** — the best-suited ones win out and reproduce.

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Question

How does antibiotic resistance spread in bacteria?

Answer

A few bacteria already carry a **resistance allele** (mutation); the antibiotic kills the rest; survivors **reproduce** and the allele becomes **more common**.

Card 3921.8.3definition
Question

What does 'differential survival' mean?

Answer

Some individuals **survive and reproduce more than others** because of their heritable features.

Card 3931.8.3definition
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Define allele frequency.

Answer

How **common a particular allele is** in a population.

Card 3941.8.4definition
Question

Define a species (biological species concept).

Answer

A group of organisms that can **interbreed and produce fertile offspring**.

Card 3951.8.4definition
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Define speciation.

Answer

The formation of a **new species** from an existing one.

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Define reproductive isolation.

Answer

When two populations can **no longer interbreed** to produce fertile offspring.

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What is gene flow?

Answer

The movement of **alleles between populations** through interbreeding.

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What is geographic isolation?

Answer

Separation of populations by a **physical barrier** (river, mountain or ocean).

Card 3991.8.4concept
Question

Why are a horse and a donkey different species?

Answer

They can mate, but their offspring (a **mule**) is **sterile** — so they fail the 'fertile offspring' test.

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Question

How would you test whether two similar forms are the same species?

Answer

Do a **breeding (crossing) test**: try to **interbreed** them and check whether the offspring are **fertile**. Fertile offspring ⇒ same species; no offspring or sterile offspring ⇒ different species.

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Question

What are the two steps of speciation?

Answer

(1) Populations become **reproductively isolated**; (2) they **diverge** by mutation and natural selection.

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Question

What does a geographic barrier do to gene flow?

Answer

It **stops gene flow** between the two populations, allowing their gene pools to diverge.

Card 4031.8.4concept
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What two processes drive the divergence?

Answer

**Mutation** (new alleles) and **natural selection** (different alleles favoured in each environment).

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When are two populations finally two species?

Answer

When they have diverged so much that they can **no longer interbreed to produce fertile offspring**.

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What is a gene pool?

Answer

All the **alleles present in a population**.

Card 4061.8.4concept
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Why does isolation alone not instantly make two species?

Answer

Divergence takes **many generations** of mutation and natural selection before interbreeding becomes impossible.

Card 4071.8.5definition
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Define speciation.

Answer

The **formation of a new species** from an existing one.

Card 4081.8.5definition
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Define adaptive radiation.

Answer

The **rapid evolution of many new species** from a single ancestor, each adapted to a **different niche**.

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What is a niche?

Answer

The particular **role and way of life** of a species — what it eats, where it lives and how it behaves.

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Adaptive radiation often follows what event?

Answer

Reaching **new, empty habitats** (for example a fresh island chain) with many unfilled niches.

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On a graph, what signals adaptive radiation?

Answer

A **sharp rise in the number of species** in one group over a relatively short time.

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Question

Define gradual speciation.

Answer

Speciation by the **slow build-up of small heritable changes** over a long time.

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Define abrupt speciation.

Answer

Speciation that happens **suddenly**, over a short time (for example by a **chromosome-number change**).

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In the fossil record, what does gradual speciation look like?

Answer

A **smooth series of in-between forms**, each only slightly different from the one before.

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Question

Give one common cause of abrupt speciation in plants.

Answer

A **change in chromosome number**, which instantly stops the plant breeding with its parent population.

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Do these patterns still need natural selection?

Answer

**Yes** — adaptive radiation, gradual and abrupt speciation all rely on **natural selection** and **reproductive isolation**.

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What does diversification mean here?

Answer

One group **becoming more varied** — splitting into **many** different species over time.

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Question

Define biodiversity.

Answer

The **variety of life** in an area — including **species, habitat and genetic** diversity.

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Define species richness.

Answer

The **number of different species** present in a community.

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Define ecosystem stability.

Answer

The ability of an ecosystem to **keep functioning and recover** after a disturbance.

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Name the three levels of biodiversity.

Answer

**Species** diversity, **habitat** diversity and **genetic** diversity.

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Why does high biodiversity make an ecosystem more stable?

Answer

Species' roles **overlap**, so if one species is lost **another can cover its role** — the ecosystem keeps working.

Card 4231.9.1concept
Question

Give two ways biodiversity is valuable to humans.

Answer

It provides **food and materials**, **medicines**, and **ecosystem services** (e.g. pollination, water cleaning).

Card 4241.9.1definition
Question

What is an ecosystem service? Give an example.

Answer

Free 'work' an ecosystem does for us — e.g. **bees pollinating crops** or wetlands cleaning water.

Card 4251.9.1concept
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Why is extinction such a serious loss?

Answer

It is **irreversible** — a species' genes and its ecological role are gone **forever**.

Card 4261.9.1concept
Question

Name three human causes of biodiversity loss.

Answer

**Habitat destruction**, **overexploitation** and **pollution** (also invasive species and climate change).

Card 4271.9.1definition
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What is the 'sixth mass extinction'?

Answer

The current **rapid, human-driven** loss of species, happening far faster than the natural background rate.

Card 4281.9.1concept
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In a 'Suggest why biodiversity matters' question, what should you link to?

Answer

Link **more species** to a **benefit** — usually greater **stability / resilience** or more **ecosystem services**.

Card 4291.9.1concept
Question

Why does just saying 'there are more species' score no marks?

Answer

You must **link** the extra species to a **consequence** (stability, services); the variety alone is not the mark.

Card 4301.9.2definition
Question

Define biodiversity.

Answer

The **variety of living organisms** — the number of different species and the variety within them.

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Define extinction.

Answer

The **permanent loss** of a species when its **very last member dies**.

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Question

Name the five human causes of biodiversity loss.

Answer

**Habitat loss, overexploitation, pollution, invasive species, climate change** (memory hook: HIPPO).

Card 4331.9.2concept
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Which cause destroys the most biodiversity, and why?

Answer

**Habitat loss** — clearing a habitat removes the home of **every** species that depends on it at once.

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Define habitat loss.

Answer

Destruction or fragmentation of the **natural place a species lives** (e.g. deforestation, draining wetlands).

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Define overexploitation.

Answer

Harvesting or hunting a species **faster than it can reproduce**, so its population crashes.

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Define an invasive species.

Answer

A **non-native** species, introduced by humans, that spreads and **harms native species** by competing with, eating or infecting them.

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Why are islands especially vulnerable to invasive species?

Answer

Native island species often have **no defences** against a brand-new predator or competitor.

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Give one way pollution causes biodiversity loss.

Answer

Harmful substances such as **pesticides or plastic** added to air, water or soil **poison or kill** wildlife.

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How does climate change cause biodiversity loss?

Answer

Human-driven warming **shifts conditions faster than species can adapt** (e.g. coral bleaching as the sea warms).

Card 4401.9.2concept
Question

Difference between extinction and biodiversity loss?

Answer

**Extinction** = one whole species lost forever; **biodiversity loss** = the **wider fall** in variety, including shrinking populations.

Card 4411.9.2concept
Question

What does a 'Discuss the impact' question need to score full marks?

Answer

**Named impacts with reasoning** (a direct and a knock-on effect) — not just 'it is bad'.

Card 4421.9.3definition
Question

Define in situ conservation.

Answer

Protecting a species **within its natural habitat** (e.g. in a nature reserve or national park).

Card 4431.9.3definition
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Define ex situ conservation.

Answer

Protecting a species **outside its natural habitat** (e.g. in a zoo, botanic garden or seed bank).

Card 4441.9.3concept
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Give two examples of in situ conservation.

Answer

**Nature reserves / national parks** and **wildlife corridors** that connect them.

Card 4451.9.3concept
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State the main advantage of in situ conservation.

Answer

The **whole ecosystem** is conserved together, so the species keeps a large population with **high genetic diversity** and behaves naturally.

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What is a wildlife corridor?

Answer

A protected strip of habitat that **connects two separate reserves** so animals can move between them.

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How does a wildlife corridor help biodiversity?

Answer

It lets animals **move, interbreed and recolonise** between reserves — keeping populations larger and genetically diverse.

Card 4481.9.3definition
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Define habitat fragmentation.

Answer

The breaking up of one large habitat into **smaller, separated patches**.

Card 4491.9.3definition
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What is the edge effect?

Answer

The **harsher conditions** (wind, light, predators, invasive species) found **near the boundary** of a habitat patch compared with its interior.

Card 4501.9.3concept
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Which reserve shape protects the most species, and why?

Answer

A **large, rounded** reserve — it has **more sheltered interior** and **less exposed edge**.

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Why is a long, thin reserve poor at protecting species?

Answer

It is **almost all edge**, so harsh edge conditions reach every part and few interior species survive.

Card 4521.9.3concept
Question

Why does in situ conservation keep genetic diversity high?

Answer

The wild population stays **large**, so a wide range of alleles is kept (unlike a small captive group).

Card 4531.9.3concept
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Why is in situ often preferred over ex situ?

Answer

It conserves the **whole habitat/ecosystem** and lets the species **behave and evolve naturally**, not just survive in captivity.

Card 4541.9.4definition
Question

Define ex situ conservation.

Answer

Protecting a species **away from its natural habitat** — e.g. in a zoo, botanic garden, seed bank or gene bank.

Card 4551.9.4definition
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Define in situ conservation.

Answer

Protecting a species **inside its natural habitat** — e.g. a nature reserve or national park.

Card 4561.9.4concept
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Give three ex situ methods.

Answer

**Captive breeding** (zoos), **botanic gardens**, and **seed / gene banks**.

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What is captive breeding?

Answer

Breeding endangered animals **under human care** to raise their numbers, often to **reintroduce** them to the wild.

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What is a seed bank?

Answer

A cold, dry store of seeds from many species kept as a **long-term genetic back-up**.

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How does ex situ help raise numbers?

Answer

Animals breed **safely** (away from predators/poachers) under expert care, so the **population grows**.

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How do gene/seed banks help conservation?

Answer

They **preserve genetic variety** so a species can recover even if wild populations are lost.

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Question

What is reintroduction?

Answer

**Releasing** captive-bred individuals back into a (protected) **natural habitat**.

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Question

Give two limitations of ex situ conservation.

Answer

It is **expensive** and holds **small numbers** (inbreeding risk); it also **does not protect the habitat**.

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Question

Why can captive-bred animals struggle after release?

Answer

They may **lack survival skills** learned in the wild, so they can struggle to find food or avoid predators.

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Why is ex situ called a 'back-up'?

Answer

It keeps a species alive when its **wild habitat is too damaged**, but it does not protect that habitat — so it works **best alongside in situ**.

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In situ vs ex situ — one key difference?

Answer

**In situ protects the habitat** (the species stays in the wild); **ex situ does not** (the species is held off-site).

Card 4661.9.5definition
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Define rewilding.

Answer

Restoring the **natural processes** of a degraded ecosystem so it becomes **self-sustaining**, often by reintroducing a **keystone species**.

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Define a keystone species.

Answer

A species whose effect on its ecosystem is **far larger than its numbers** suggest (e.g. a top predator or a beaver).

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Question

Define a degraded ecosystem.

Answer

An ecosystem that has been **damaged** so it works less well (e.g. a cleared forest or drained wetland).

Card 4691.9.5concept
Question

What is the flagship method of rewilding?

Answer

Reintroducing a **keystone species** to restart natural processes across the ecosystem.

Card 4701.9.5concept
Question

Name a rewilding method that is NOT a keystone reintroduction.

Answer

Restore natural **water flow** (re-flooding), re-establish natural **grazing**, let **native plants** return, or reconnect habitats with **corridors**.

Card 4711.9.5concept
Question

How does rewilding differ from ordinary conservation?

Answer

Conservation protects species and often needs **ongoing management**; rewilding restores **natural processes** so the ecosystem **manages itself**.

Card 4721.9.5concept
Question

Why can reintroducing one keystone species restore a whole ecosystem?

Answer

Its activity (e.g. damming or predation) restarts a **chain** of natural processes that many other species depend on.

Card 4731.9.5concept
Question

Give an example of a keystone reintroduction in rewilding.

Answer

**Beavers** — they build dams that restore water flow and create wetland that supports many species.

Card 4741.9.5definition
Question

What does 'ecosystem restoration' mean?

Answer

Repairing a **damaged** ecosystem so its **natural processes** and **biodiversity** recover.

Card 4751.9.5concept
Question

How does rewilding help minimise biodiversity loss?

Answer

By restoring natural processes in a **degraded** ecosystem, it **reverses** damage so more species can return.

Card 4761.9.5concept
Question

Name two natural processes rewilding tries to restore.

Answer

Any two of: **grazing**, **predation**, **flooding/water flow**, **seed dispersal**.

Card 4771.9.5concept
Question

In a 'rewilding methods other than keystone reintroduction' question, what must each method do?

Answer

Restore a **natural process** (not just add a species) — e.g. re-flooding or letting native plants return.

Card 4781.9.6definition
Question

What does EDGE stand for?

Answer

**Evolutionarily Distinct and Globally Endangered**.

Card 4791.9.6concept
Question

What is the purpose of the EDGE programme?

Answer

To **prioritise** which species to conserve — choosing those that are both distinct and endangered when resources are limited.

Card 4801.9.6definition
Question

Define 'evolutionarily distinct'.

Answer

Having **very few close living relatives** — a unique, long branch on the tree of life carrying unique evolutionary history.

Card 4811.9.6definition
Question

Define 'globally endangered'.

Answer

At **high risk of extinction worldwide** (e.g. a very small or fast-falling population).

Card 4821.9.6definition
Question

What is an EDGE species?

Answer

A species that is **both** highly evolutionarily distinct **and** globally endangered — so it is high priority for conservation.

Card 4831.9.6concept
Question

Why must conservationists prioritise species?

Answer

There are **more endangered species than money, land and time** to save them all, so choices must be made.

Card 4841.9.6concept
Question

A species is distinct but common. Is it a high EDGE priority?

Answer

**No** — it is distinct but not at risk, so it is not urgent.

Card 4851.9.6concept
Question

A species is endangered but has many close relatives. High EDGE priority?

Answer

**No (lower)** — its loss is a smaller loss to the tree of life because similar species remain.

Card 4861.9.6concept
Question

Why is losing an evolutionarily distinct species so costly?

Answer

It removes a **unique branch of the tree of life and unique genes** that **no other species can replace**.

Card 4871.9.6definition
Question

Define biodiversity.

Answer

The **variety of life** — the range of different species (and genes and ecosystems) in an area.

Card 4881.9.6definition
Question

Define conservation.

Answer

**Protecting species and habitats** so that biodiversity is maintained for the future.

Card 4891.9.6concept
Question

Which TWO criteria must a top EDGE species meet?

Answer

It must be **evolutionarily distinct AND globally endangered** — high on both, not just one.

Card 4902.1.1concept
Question

How many covalent bonds can one carbon atom form?

Answer

**Four** — this lets carbon build chains, branches and rings.

Card 4912.1.1concept
Question

Why is carbon the 'backbone' of biological molecules?

Answer

Each carbon forms **four covalent bonds** and bonds to itself and other elements, so it builds a huge variety of molecule shapes.

Card 4922.1.1definition
Question

Define a macromolecule.

Answer

A very large molecule built from **many smaller repeating subunits** (e.g. a polysaccharide, protein or nucleic acid).

Card 4932.1.1definition
Question

Define a monomer.

Answer

A single small subunit that can be joined to others to build a larger molecule (e.g. glucose, an amino acid).

Card 4942.1.1definition
Question

Define a polymer.

Answer

A large molecule made of **many monomers** joined together (e.g. starch).

Card 4952.1.1definition
Question

Define condensation.

Answer

A reaction that **joins two subunits** and **releases one water molecule (H₂O)**.

Card 4962.1.1definition
Question

Define hydrolysis.

Answer

A reaction that **uses one water molecule (H₂O)** to break a bond and split a molecule into two subunits.

Card 4972.1.1concept
Question

Which reaction builds macromolecules?

Answer

**Condensation** — it joins monomers and removes water.

Card 4982.1.1concept
Question

Which reaction breaks macromolecules (or disaccharides) down?

Answer

**Hydrolysis** — it adds water to split the bonds.

Card 4992.1.1concept
Question

Is condensation anabolic or catabolic?

Answer

**Anabolic** — it builds larger molecules from smaller ones.

Card 5002.1.1concept
Question

Is hydrolysis anabolic or catabolic?

Answer

**Catabolic** — it breaks larger molecules into smaller ones.

Card 5012.1.1concept
Question

In condensation, what happens to water?

Answer

One **water molecule is released** (removed) each time a bond forms.

Card 5022.1.1concept
Question

In hydrolysis, what happens to water?

Answer

One **water molecule is used** (added) to break each bond.

Card 5032.1.1concept
Question

What feature is common to all polysaccharides and triglycerides?

Answer

They are macromolecules built from **smaller subunits joined by condensation**, releasing water.

Card 5042.1.1concept
Question

What does the word 'hydrolysis' literally mean?

Answer

'**Hydro**' = water, '**lysis**' = splitting — splitting a molecule using water.

Card 5052.1.2definition
Question

Define a monosaccharide.

Answer

A **single sugar unit** — the **monomer** of a carbohydrate (e.g. glucose, fructose, galactose).

Card 5062.1.2definition
Question

Define a disaccharide.

Answer

A sugar made of **two monosaccharides joined together** (e.g. maltose, sucrose, lactose).

Card 5072.1.2concept
Question

What is the chemical formula of glucose?

Answer

**C₆H₁₂O₆**.

Card 5082.1.2definition
Question

Define isomers.

Answer

Molecules with the **same chemical formula** but a **different arrangement of atoms**.

Card 5092.1.2concept
Question

What is the ONLY difference between alpha- and beta-D-glucose?

Answer

The **direction of the -OH group on carbon 1**: it points **down** in alpha-glucose and **up** in beta-glucose.

Card 5102.1.2definition
Question

Define a condensation reaction.

Answer

A reaction that **joins two molecules** together and **releases a molecule of water** (H₂O).

Card 5112.1.2definition
Question

Define hydrolysis.

Answer

A reaction that **adds water** to **break a bond** — the reverse of condensation.

Card 5122.1.2definition
Question

What bond joins two monosaccharides?

Answer

A **glycosidic bond**.

Card 5132.1.2concept
Question

What are the products when two glucose molecules join by condensation?

Answer

The disaccharide **maltose** **and** a molecule of **water**.

Card 5142.1.2concept
Question

Maltose is made from which two monosaccharides?

Answer

**Glucose + glucose**.

Card 5152.1.2concept
Question

Sucrose is made from which two monosaccharides?

Answer

**Glucose + fructose**.

Card 5162.1.2concept
Question

Lactose is made from which two monosaccharides?

Answer

**Glucose + galactose**.

Card 5172.1.2concept
Question

Why is glucose easy to transport in the blood?

Answer

It is **small and soluble in water**, so it dissolves in the plasma and is carried around the body.

Card 5182.1.2concept
Question

Why is glucose important inside cells?

Answer

It is the **main respiratory substrate** — it is broken down in respiration to release energy (ATP).

Card 5192.1.3definition
Question

Define a polysaccharide.

Answer

A large molecule (polymer) made of **many monosaccharides** joined together.

Card 5202.1.3concept
Question

What is the monomer of starch, glycogen and cellulose?

Answer

**Glucose** — a monosaccharide.

Card 5212.1.3concept
Question

Name the three polysaccharides you must know and their roles.

Answer

**Starch** (energy store in plants), **glycogen** (energy store in animals), **cellulose** (structural support in plant cell walls).

Card 5222.1.3concept
Question

Which form of glucose builds starch and glycogen?

Answer

**Alpha-glucose**.

Card 5232.1.3concept
Question

Which form of glucose builds cellulose?

Answer

**Beta-glucose**.

Card 5242.1.3concept
Question

Describe the structure of starch.

Answer

**Alpha-glucose** chains that are **coiled (helical) and lightly branched**.

Card 5252.1.3concept
Question

Describe the structure of glycogen.

Answer

**Alpha-glucose** chains that are **highly branched** (even more than starch).

Card 5262.1.3concept
Question

Describe the structure of cellulose.

Answer

**Beta-glucose** in **long, straight, unbranched chains** that hydrogen-bond into **fibres**.

Card 5272.1.3concept
Question

Give three features that make a polysaccharide a good energy store.

Answer

It is a **large/compact glucose polymer** (lots of energy), **insoluble** (no effect on osmosis), and **branched** (many ends for fast glucose release).

Card 5282.1.3concept
Question

Why is being insoluble useful for a storage polysaccharide?

Answer

It does **not dissolve**, so it does **not affect the cell's water balance** (osmosis) and stays as a store.

Card 5292.1.3concept
Question

Why does branching help a storage polysaccharide?

Answer

Branches give **many free ends**, so glucose can be **added or removed quickly** by hydrolysis when energy is needed.

Card 5302.1.3concept
Question

Explain how cellulose's structure suits its function.

Answer

Straight **beta-glucose** chains **hydrogen-bond** side by side into strong **fibres**, which support the **plant cell wall**.

Card 5312.1.3concept
Question

State the role of cellulose in plant cells.

Answer

It provides **structural support** — its fibres strengthen the **cell wall**.

Card 5322.1.3concept
Question

Why can humans not digest cellulose?

Answer

We lack the enzyme to break its **beta-glucose** links, so it passes through as dietary **fibre**.

Card 5332.1.3concept
Question

What reaction joins glucose units into a polysaccharide, and what is released?

Answer

**Condensation** — each link **releases one water molecule (H₂O)**.

Card 5342.1.4definition
Question

What is a triglyceride made of?

Answer

**One glycerol** joined to **three fatty acids**.

Card 5352.1.4definition
Question

Define glycerol.

Answer

A small **3-carbon** molecule with **three —OH (hydroxyl) groups**; it forms the **backbone** of a triglyceride.

Card 5362.1.4definition
Question

Define a fatty acid.

Answer

A long **hydrocarbon chain** ending in a **—COOH (carboxyl) group**, which is where it joins the glycerol.

Card 5372.1.4concept
Question

What bond joins a fatty acid to glycerol?

Answer

An **ester bond**.

Card 5382.1.4concept
Question

How many ester bonds are in one triglyceride?

Answer

**Three** — one for each of the three fatty acids.

Card 5392.1.4definition
Question

Name the reaction that builds a triglyceride.

Answer

**Condensation** — it forms the ester bonds and **removes water** (one H₂O per bond, three in total).

Card 5402.1.4definition
Question

Name the reaction that breaks a triglyceride.

Answer

**Hydrolysis** — it **adds water** (three H₂O) to break the three ester bonds.

Card 5412.1.4concept
Question

What are the products of hydrolysing a triglyceride?

Answer

**One glycerol** and **three fatty acids**.

Card 5422.1.4definition
Question

What makes a fatty acid saturated?

Answer

Its carbon chain has **only single C–C bonds** — it holds the **maximum** hydrogen and the chain is **straight**.

Card 5432.1.4definition
Question

What makes a fatty acid unsaturated?

Answer

Its chain has **one or more C=C double bonds**, which put a **kink** in the chain.

Card 5442.1.4concept
Question

How do you spot an unsaturated fatty acid in a diagram?

Answer

Look for a **C=C double bond** (and a **kink**) in the carbon chain.

Card 5452.1.4concept
Question

Why are unsaturated fats usually liquid oils at room temperature?

Answer

Their **kinked chains** cannot pack closely together, so they stay **liquid**.

Card 5462.1.4concept
Question

Saturated vs unsaturated — which is usually solid?

Answer

**Saturated** fats are usually **solid** (e.g. butter); unsaturated are usually **liquid oils** (e.g. olive oil).

Card 5472.1.4concept
Question

How many water molecules are released when one triglyceride forms?

Answer

**Three** — one per ester bond formed by condensation.

Card 5482.1.5concept
Question

Which lipid is used to store energy?

Answer

The **triglyceride** — one **glycerol** joined to **three fatty acids**.

Card 5492.1.5concept
Question

Where do animals store fat?

Answer

In **adipose tissue** — fat-storage cells under the skin and around organs.

Card 5502.1.5concept
Question

How much energy does a triglyceride store compared with carbohydrate?

Answer

About **twice** as much energy **per gram**.

Card 5512.1.5concept
Question

Why are triglycerides so energy-rich per gram?

Answer

Their long **fatty-acid tails** contain many energy-rich **C–H bonds** and little oxygen.

Card 5522.1.5concept
Question

Are triglycerides soluble or insoluble in water?

Answer

**Insoluble** — the fatty-acid tails are **hydrophobic** (water-repelling).

Card 5532.1.5concept
Question

Why is being insoluble an ADVANTAGE for a store?

Answer

Fat does not dissolve in the cell or draw water in by **osmosis**, so large amounts can be stored without upsetting the cell's water balance.

Card 5542.1.5definition
Question

Define hydrophobic.

Answer

**Water-repelling** — a non-polar part that does not mix with or dissolve in water.

Card 5552.1.5definition
Question

Define adipose tissue.

Answer

Animal tissue made of **fat-storage cells**; it stores triglycerides and forms an **insulating layer** under the skin.

Card 5562.1.5concept
Question

Besides energy, give two roles of the fat layer.

Answer

**Thermal insulation** (slows heat loss) and **protection / cushioning** of organs.

Card 5572.1.5concept
Question

Why does glucose dissolve in water but oil does not?

Answer

Glucose has many polar **–OH groups** that attract water; a triglyceride's tails are **non-polar / hydrophobic**, so they do not.

Card 5582.1.5concept
Question

Which is the long-term energy store: lipid or carbohydrate?

Answer

**Lipid** (triglyceride fat) is the long-term, high-capacity store; **carbohydrate (glycogen)** is the short-term, quick store.

Card 5592.1.5concept
Question

Why is fat a 'compact' store?

Answer

It holds lots of energy and carries no extra water, so it stores the **same energy for less mass**.

Card 5602.1.5definition
Question

Define triglyceride.

Answer

The energy-storage lipid: one **glycerol** molecule joined to **three fatty acids**.

Card 5612.1.5concept
Question

In an 'explain' answer, what must you do with each property?

Answer

**Pair it with its reason** — e.g. insoluble BECAUSE hydrophobic; high energy BECAUSE many C–H bonds.

Card 5622.1.6definition
Question

Define a phospholipid.

Answer

A lipid made of **one glycerol, two fatty acids and a phosphate-containing head**.

Card 5632.1.6definition
Question

Define amphipathic.

Answer

Having **both a hydrophilic (water-loving) part and a hydrophobic (water-fearing) part** in the same molecule.

Card 5642.1.6definition
Question

What does hydrophilic mean?

Answer

**Water-loving** — attracted to and mixes with water.

Card 5652.1.6definition
Question

What does hydrophobic mean?

Answer

**Water-fearing** — does not mix with water; repelled by it.

Card 5662.1.6concept
Question

Which part of a phospholipid is the hydrophilic head?

Answer

The **phosphate group** (with the glycerol) — it is **polar**, so it is attracted to water.

Card 5672.1.6concept
Question

Which part of a phospholipid is hydrophobic?

Answer

The **two fatty-acid tails** — they are **non-polar**, so they are repelled by water.

Card 5682.1.6concept
Question

Why is a phospholipid amphipathic?

Answer

Because the **same molecule** has a **hydrophilic head AND hydrophobic tails**.

Card 5692.1.6concept
Question

How is a phospholipid built?

Answer

By **condensation reactions** that join the fatty acids and phosphate to glycerol, **releasing water (H₂O)**.

Card 5702.1.6concept
Question

How does a phospholipid differ from a triglyceride?

Answer

Both use one glycerol, but a phospholipid has **2 fatty acids + a phosphate head**, while a triglyceride has **3 fatty acids and no phosphate**.

Card 5712.1.6concept
Question

How do phospholipids behave in water?

Answer

They **self-arrange into a bilayer**: hydrophilic heads face the water on both sides, hydrophobic tails tuck into the middle.

Card 5722.1.6concept
Question

What is a phospholipid bilayer the basis of?

Answer

The **cell (plasma) membrane** — the boundary around every cell.

Card 5732.1.6concept
Question

In a phospholipid bilayer, where do the hydrophobic tails point?

Answer

**Inwards**, towards the middle — away from the water on both sides.

Card 5742.1.6concept
Question

Give an example of a molecule that is NOT amphipathic.

Answer

A **triglyceride** (fully hydrophobic) or **glucose** (fully hydrophilic) — each is only one or the other.

Card 5752.1.6definition
Question

What is the backbone of a phospholipid?

Answer

**Glycerol** — the fatty-acid tails and the phosphate head all attach to it.

Card 5762.10.1definition
Question

What is an ecological niche?

Answer

The **role** a species plays in its ecosystem — its **abiotic tolerances**, its **food source** and its **interactions** with other species.

Card 5772.10.1concept
Question

What three things describe a niche?

Answer

**Abiotic tolerances** (e.g. temperature, oxygen), the **food/energy source**, and **interactions** with other species.

Card 5782.10.1concept
Question

What is the difference between a habitat and a niche?

Answer

A **habitat** is *where* an organism lives (its 'address'); a **niche** is its *role* — how it lives (its 'job').

Card 5792.10.1concept
Question

Can two species share a habitat but have different niches?

Answer

**Yes** — e.g. two fish in the same lake that feed on different foods have the same habitat but different niches.

Card 5802.10.1definition
Question

Define an abiotic factor.

Answer

A **non-living** physical condition of the environment, such as temperature, oxygen, light or pH.

Card 5812.10.1definition
Question

Define a biotic factor.

Answer

A **living** influence on an organism, such as predators, prey, competitors or partner species.

Card 5822.10.1definition
Question

What is a tolerance range?

Answer

The range of an abiotic factor (e.g. temperature) within which a species can **survive and grow**.

Card 5832.10.1definition
Question

What is the fundamental niche?

Answer

The **full** range of conditions and resources a species **could** occupy if there were **no competitors**.

Card 5842.10.1definition
Question

What is the realized niche?

Answer

The **smaller** part of the fundamental niche a species **actually** occupies once **competitors** are present.

Card 5852.10.1concept
Question

Why is the realized niche smaller than the fundamental niche?

Answer

Because **competition** restricts the species to part of its potential range (the start of competitive exclusion).

Card 5862.10.1concept
Question

How should you answer a niche question using a data table?

Answer

**Read the data** (e.g. temperature ranges) and deduce from the numbers — do not answer from general memory of the species.

Card 5872.10.1concept
Question

Why might a small fish be more abundant among submerged plants than floating plants?

Answer

Submerged plants are part of its niche — they provide **more shelter from predators** and **more food**, so the fish survives better there.

Card 5882.10.2definition
Question

What is an abiotic factor?

Answer

A **non-living** physical or chemical feature of the environment (e.g. temperature, light, water, pH, oxygen, salinity).

Card 5892.10.2definition
Question

What is a biotic factor?

Answer

A **living** feature of the environment — the effect of other organisms (predators, competitors, parasites, food).

Card 5902.10.2concept
Question

How do you decide if a factor is abiotic or biotic?

Answer

Ask **is it alive?** Non-living physical/chemical = abiotic; the effect of another organism = biotic.

Card 5912.10.2concept
Question

Give three examples of abiotic factors.

Answer

**Temperature, light intensity and water availability** (also pH, oxygen, salinity, soil minerals).

Card 5922.10.2concept
Question

Give three examples of biotic factors.

Answer

**Predators, competitors and parasites** (also disease and food supply).

Card 5932.10.2definition
Question

What is an organism's range of tolerance?

Answer

The range of an abiotic factor over which it can **survive** — best in the optimum, absent beyond its limits.

Card 5942.10.2concept
Question

On a tolerance curve, what is the optimum range?

Answer

The middle peak, where the organism's **performance / abundance is highest**.

Card 5952.10.2concept
Question

On a tolerance curve, what happens beyond the limits of tolerance?

Answer

The organism cannot survive and is **absent**.

Card 5962.10.2definition
Question

What is a limiting factor?

Answer

The abiotic factor **furthest from the optimum** — the one that restricts where an organism can live.

Card 5972.10.2definition
Question

What is a biome?

Answer

A **large region with a characteristic climate** (abiotic conditions) and a characteristic community of organisms.

Card 5982.10.2concept
Question

Which two abiotic conditions mainly define a biome?

Answer

**Temperature** and **rainfall** (water availability).

Card 5992.10.2concept
Question

Name two abiotic factors that characterise a hot desert.

Answer

**Very high temperature** and **very low rainfall** (scarce water).

Card 6002.10.2concept
Question

Why might a species grow faster in a mesocosm than in the wild?

Answer

Conditions are kept **near its optimum**, so the **limiting factor is removed**.

Card 6012.10.3concept
Question

What two things does a mode of nutrition describe?

Answer

Where an organism gets its **energy** and where it gets its **carbon**.

Card 6022.10.3definition
Question

Define an autotroph.

Answer

An organism that **makes its own organic carbon** from an inorganic source (**CO₂**). 'Auto' = self-feeding.

Card 6032.10.3definition
Question

Define a heterotroph.

Answer

An organism that obtains organic carbon by **taking in organic molecules** made by other organisms. 'Hetero' = feeding on others.

Card 6042.10.3definition
Question

What is a mixotroph?

Answer

An organism that can use **both modes** — making its own food like an autotroph AND taking organic food like a heterotroph (e.g. Euglena).

Card 6052.10.3concept
Question

What carbon source do all autotrophs use?

Answer

**Carbon dioxide (CO₂)** — an inorganic carbon source.

Card 6062.10.3concept
Question

Distinguish a photoautotroph from a chemoautotroph.

Answer

Both fix CO₂, but a **photoautotroph** uses **light** for energy, while a **chemoautotroph** oxidises **inorganic chemicals** (e.g. H₂S).

Card 6072.10.3definition
Question

What is holozoic nutrition?

Answer

Heterotrophic feeding in which food is **ingested and digested INTERNALLY** inside the body (most animals).

Card 6082.10.3definition
Question

What is a saprotroph?

Answer

A heterotroph that feeds on **dead** organic matter, digesting it **EXTERNALLY** with secreted enzymes and absorbing the products (decomposers).

Card 6092.10.3definition
Question

What is a parasite (as a mode of nutrition)?

Answer

A heterotroph that feeds on a **living host** and **harms** it (e.g. a tapeworm, a head louse).

Card 6102.10.3concept
Question

How do you tell a saprotroph from a holozoic feeder?

Answer

Saprotroph digests **externally** and feeds on **dead** matter; a holozoic feeder ingests food and digests it **internally**.

Card 6112.10.3concept
Question

Give an example of a chemoautotroph.

Answer

Some bacteria around **deep-sea vents** that oxidise chemicals such as hydrogen sulfide for energy.

Card 6122.10.3concept
Question

How does oxygen requirement relate to nutrition?

Answer

It is part of the niche: an **obligate aerobe** needs O₂, an **obligate anaerobe** is poisoned by it, a **facultative anaerobe** can use it or do without.

Card 6132.10.3concept
Question

How do you classify a mode of nutrition from a data row?

Answer

Read the **energy source AND carbon source together** — e.g. light + CO₂ = photoautotroph; oxidising chemicals + CO₂ = chemoautotroph.

Card 6142.10.4concept
Question

What does the competitive exclusion principle state?

Answer

Two species **cannot occupy exactly the same niche** in the same place indefinitely — one is excluded, or they partition the resource.

Card 6152.10.4definition
Question

Define an ecological niche.

Answer

An organism's **role** in its ecosystem: the abiotic conditions it tolerates, the resources it uses and its interactions with other species.

Card 6162.10.4definition
Question

Define the fundamental niche.

Answer

The **full range** of conditions and resources a species **could** use if there were **no competitors** present.

Card 6172.10.4definition
Question

Define the realized niche.

Answer

The **smaller part** of the fundamental niche a species **actually** uses once **competition** from other species restricts it.

Card 6182.10.4concept
Question

How do the fundamental and realized niches compare in size?

Answer

The realized niche is **never larger** than the fundamental niche — competition can only restrict it.

Card 6192.10.4concept
Question

When do you see a species' fundamental niche?

Answer

When the species grows **alone**, with **no competitors** present.

Card 6202.10.4concept
Question

When do you see a species' realized niche?

Answer

When the species grows **alongside a competitor**, which squeezes it into a smaller range.

Card 6212.10.4definition
Question

What is resource partitioning?

Answer

When competing species **divide a shared resource** (by space, time or type) so each uses a different part and they can **coexist**.

Card 6222.10.4concept
Question

What are the two possible outcomes when two species compete for the same niche?

Answer

**Competitive exclusion** (one species is driven out) or **resource partitioning** (they split the resource and coexist in separate zones).

Card 6232.10.4concept
Question

Why do two competing species often occupy separate, non-overlapping zones?

Answer

Each is the **better competitor in a different part** of the gradient and **excludes** the other from the part it loses, so each is restricted to its **realized niche**.

Card 6242.10.4concept
Question

On a transect, what does a separate, non-overlapping distribution of two species suggest?

Answer

**Competition** between them — each has excluded the other from part of the gradient (competitive exclusion / partitioning).

Card 6252.10.4definition
Question

What is interspecific competition?

Answer

An interaction where two **different species** both need the **same limited resource**, so each reduces the amount available to the other.

Card 6262.10.5definition
Question

What is an interspecific relationship?

Answer

An interaction between **two different species** ('inter' = between, 'specific' = species).

Card 6272.10.5concept
Question

How are interspecific relationships classified?

Answer

By the **effect on each species**: **+** if it benefits, **–** if it is harmed.

Card 6282.10.5definition
Question

Define predation.

Answer

One organism (the **predator**) kills and eats another (the **prey**). Predator **+**, prey **–**.

Card 6292.10.5definition
Question

Define herbivory.

Answer

An animal eats a plant (or part of one). The herbivore **+**, the plant **–** (often not killed).

Card 6302.10.5definition
Question

Define competition (and its effect signs).

Answer

Two species use the same **limited resource**, so **both are harmed** ( **– / –** ).

Card 6312.10.5definition
Question

Define mutualism (and its effect signs).

Answer

Two species live closely together and **both benefit** ( **+ / +** ).

Card 6322.10.5definition
Question

Define parasitism.

Answer

A **parasite** lives on or in a **host**, taking nutrients. Parasite **+**, host **–**.

Card 6332.10.5definition
Question

Define pathogenicity.

Answer

A **pathogen** (disease-causing microbe) infects a host and causes **disease**. Pathogen **+**, host **–**.

Card 6342.10.5concept
Question

Which relationship has both species benefiting?

Answer

**Mutualism** ( **+ / +** ) — e.g. a bee pollinating a flower; legume + nitrogen-fixing bacteria.

Card 6352.10.5concept
Question

Which relationship harms both species?

Answer

**Competition** ( **– / –** ) — it is the only – / – relationship.

Card 6362.10.5concept
Question

Three relationships are + / –. How do you tell them apart?

Answer

By **how** the harm happens: **eaten** → predation/herbivory; **lived on / infected** → parasitism/pathogenicity.

Card 6372.10.5concept
Question

How do you fully explain a relationship in an exam?

Answer

**Name** the relationship **and** state how **each** species is affected (+ / –). Naming alone scores only half.

Card 6382.10.5concept
Question

Gut bacteria make vitamins for a human and gain a habitat. Which relationship?

Answer

**Mutualism** — both the human and the bacteria benefit.

Card 6392.10.5concept
Question

Legume roots + nitrogen-fixing bacteria in root nodules — which relationship?

Answer

**Mutualism** — the plant gains usable nitrogen and the bacteria gain sugars and a habitat.

Card 6402.2.1definition
Question

What is an amino acid?

Answer

The **monomer (subunit)** that **proteins** are built from.

Card 6412.2.1concept
Question

What four groups are bonded to the central carbon of an amino acid?

Answer

An **amino group (—NH₂)**, a **carboxyl group (—COOH)**, a **hydrogen (—H)** and a **variable R group**.

Card 6422.2.1concept
Question

Which group gives the 'amino' in 'amino acid'?

Answer

The **amino group (—NH₂)** — a nitrogen-containing group.

Card 6432.2.1concept
Question

Which group gives the 'acid' in 'amino acid'?

Answer

The **carboxyl group (—COOH)**.

Card 6442.2.1definition
Question

What is the R group?

Answer

The **variable side chain** of an amino acid — the only part that differs from one amino acid to the next.

Card 6452.2.1concept
Question

How many different amino acids are there, and why?

Answer

**20** — because there are **20 different R groups**; the rest of the structure is identical.

Card 6462.2.1concept
Question

Which parts of an amino acid are the same in all 20 of them?

Answer

The **central carbon**, the **amino group**, the **carboxyl group** and the **hydrogen** — only the R group differs.

Card 6472.2.1concept
Question

Which elements does an amino acid contain?

Answer

**Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen and nitrogen** (some also contain sulfur).

Card 6482.2.1concept
Question

Where does the nitrogen in an amino acid come from?

Answer

From the **amino group (—NH₂)**.

Card 6492.2.1concept
Question

How can you tell a protein from a carbohydrate or lipid by its elements?

Answer

A protein contains **nitrogen**; carbohydrates and lipids contain only **C, H and O**.

Card 6502.2.1concept
Question

Do carbohydrates and lipids contain nitrogen?

Answer

**No** — they contain only carbon, hydrogen and oxygen. Nitrogen is found in proteins / amino acids.

Card 6512.2.1concept
Question

How many central carbons does a single amino acid have?

Answer

**One** — all four groups attach to this single central carbon.

Card 6522.2.2concept
Question

What reaction joins two amino acids?

Answer

**Condensation** — it forms a **peptide bond** and releases one water molecule.

Card 6532.2.2definition
Question

What is a peptide bond?

Answer

The covalent bond (**CO—NH**) that joins two amino acids; it forms by condensation.

Card 6542.2.2concept
Question

Which two groups react to form a peptide bond?

Answer

The **carboxyl group (—COOH)** of one amino acid and the **amino group (—NH₂)** of the next.

Card 6552.2.2concept
Question

Which atoms are removed when two amino acids join?

Answer

An **—OH** (from the carboxyl group) and an **—H** (from the amino group), leaving together as **one water molecule**.

Card 6562.2.2concept
Question

How much water is released per peptide bond formed?

Answer

**One** molecule of water (H₂O) per peptide bond.

Card 6572.2.2definition
Question

Define a dipeptide.

Answer

**Two amino acids** joined by a single peptide bond.

Card 6582.2.2definition
Question

Define a polypeptide.

Answer

A long chain of **many amino acids** joined by peptide bonds.

Card 6592.2.2concept
Question

What reaction breaks a peptide bond?

Answer

**Hydrolysis** — one water molecule is **added** across the bond, splitting the chain into amino acids.

Card 6602.2.2concept
Question

When does hydrolysis of peptide bonds happen in the body?

Answer

During **digestion**, when dietary protein is broken back down into amino acids.

Card 6612.2.2concept
Question

How many peptide bonds are in a single chain of n amino acids?

Answer

**n − 1** — each bond links a pair, so there is one fewer bond than amino acids.

Card 6622.2.2concept
Question

How do you count peptide bonds across several chains?

Answer

**Total amino acids − number of chains** (each chain has one fewer bond than its amino acids).

Card 6632.2.2concept
Question

How many peptide bonds are in a chain of 5 amino acids?

Answer

**4** (5 − 1).

Card 6642.2.3concept
Question

How many different amino acids build human proteins?

Answer

**20** — about **nine** are essential and about **eleven** are non-essential.

Card 6652.2.3definition
Question

Define an essential amino acid.

Answer

An amino acid the body **cannot synthesise (make)**, so it **must be obtained from the diet**.

Card 6662.2.3definition
Question

Define a non-essential amino acid.

Answer

An amino acid the body **can synthesise (make)** for itself, so it **does not have to be supplied by the diet**.

Card 6672.2.3concept
Question

Does 'non-essential' mean an amino acid is unimportant?

Answer

**No** — every amino acid is needed to build proteins. 'Non-essential' only means it is **not required in the diet**, because the body can make it.

Card 6682.2.3definition
Question

What does 'synthesise' mean here?

Answer

To **make / build** a molecule inside the body from simpler materials.

Card 6692.2.3concept
Question

Which type of amino acid must come from food?

Answer

**Essential** amino acids — the body cannot make them.

Card 6702.2.3concept
Question

How do you distinguish essential from non-essential amino acids?

Answer

**Essential = cannot be made by the body → must be eaten**; **non-essential = can be made by the body → need not be eaten**.

Card 6712.2.3concept
Question

Why can most animal proteins supply protein needs in one food?

Answer

They contain **all nine essential amino acids** in a single source (meat, fish, eggs, dairy).

Card 6722.2.3concept
Question

Why is a single plant protein sometimes not enough?

Answer

A single plant protein often **lacks one or more essential amino acids**.

Card 6732.2.3concept
Question

What must a vegan / plant-based eater do for protein?

Answer

**Combine different plant proteins** (e.g. rice + beans) so that **all nine essential amino acids** are supplied.

Card 6742.2.3concept
Question

What happens if an essential amino acid is missing from the diet?

Answer

The body has **no source** of it, so it **cannot build the proteins** that contain it (a protein deficiency).

Card 6752.2.3concept
Question

A table marks an amino acid 'essential' — what can you conclude about how to get it?

Answer

It **cannot be synthesised by the body**, so it **must be obtained from the diet**.

Card 6762.2.4definition
Question

What is a protein's 'conformation'?

Answer

Its specific **folded 3D shape**. The protein only works correctly in its normal conformation.

Card 6772.2.4concept
Question

What determines a protein's conformation (folded shape)?

Answer

The **sequence (order) of its amino acids** — the primary structure.

Card 6782.2.4definition
Question

What is the primary structure of a protein?

Answer

The **sequence (order) of amino acids** in the chain, joined by peptide bonds.

Card 6792.2.4definition
Question

What is the secondary structure of a protein?

Answer

Local folding into **α-helices** (coils) and **β-pleated sheets**, held by **hydrogen bonds**.

Card 6802.2.4definition
Question

What is the tertiary structure of a protein?

Answer

The way the **whole single chain folds** into one overall **3D shape**, held by bonds between the R-groups.

Card 6812.2.4definition
Question

What is the quaternary structure of a protein?

Answer

The way **two or more folded chains (subunits)** join together to make one functional protein (e.g. haemoglobin).

Card 6822.2.4concept
Question

Name the four levels of protein structure in order.

Answer

**Primary → secondary → tertiary → quaternary.**

Card 6832.2.4concept
Question

Which proteins do NOT have quaternary structure?

Answer

**Single-chain** proteins — quaternary structure needs **two or more** chains.

Card 6842.2.4concept
Question

What holds the secondary structure together?

Answer

**Hydrogen bonds** between parts of the polypeptide backbone.

Card 6852.2.4definition
Question

What is denaturation?

Answer

The **loss of a protein's folded 3D shape**, so it can no longer do its job.

Card 6862.2.4concept
Question

What two conditions commonly cause denaturation?

Answer

**High temperature** and **extreme pH** (very acidic or alkaline).

Card 6872.2.4concept
Question

When a protein denatures, what is preserved and what is lost?

Answer

The **amino acid sequence (peptide bonds) is preserved**; the **folded 3D shape (conformation) is lost**.

Card 6882.2.4concept
Question

Why does a denatured enzyme stop working?

Answer

Its **active site changes shape**, so the **substrate no longer fits** and the reaction is not catalysed.

Card 6892.2.5concept
Question

What determines a protein's function?

Answer

Its specific **3-D shape**, which comes from the **order of its amino acids**.

Card 6902.2.5definition
Question

What is meant by the functional diversity of proteins?

Answer

Proteins, as a group, can carry out a very **wide range of different jobs** — more than any other type of molecule.

Card 6912.2.5concept
Question

Name a protein that acts as an enzyme, and what it does.

Answer

**Amylase** — it **catalyses** the breakdown of starch into sugar.

Card 6922.2.5concept
Question

Name a transport protein and what it carries.

Answer

**Haemoglobin** — it **carries oxygen** in red blood cells.

Card 6932.2.5concept
Question

Name a structural protein and where it gives strength.

Answer

**Collagen** — it strengthens **skin, tendons and bone**.

Card 6942.2.5concept
Question

Name a protein hormone and what it signals.

Answer

**Insulin** — it signals cells to **take up glucose** from the blood.

Card 6952.2.5concept
Question

What role do antibodies perform?

Answer

**Defence** — they **bind to specific pathogens** so the body can destroy them.

Card 6962.2.5concept
Question

Which proteins make muscle contract?

Answer

**Actin and myosin** — contractile proteins that generate **movement**.

Card 6972.2.5concept
Question

Name a pigment protein and its job.

Answer

**Rhodopsin** — it **absorbs light** in the rod cells of the retina (needed for vision).

Card 6982.2.5definition
Question

Define a protein deficiency.

Answer

A **shortage of, or fault in, a particular protein**, so the job it normally does cannot be carried out.

Card 6992.2.5concept
Question

How do you predict the effect of a protein deficiency?

Answer

Name the **protein's job**, then state that this **job is lost** — so the process that relied on it **fails**.

Card 7002.2.5concept
Question

Which protein deficiency would most likely impair vision, and why?

Answer

A shortage of **rhodopsin** — it normally **absorbs light** in rod cells, so without it light is not detected and vision is impaired.

Card 7012.2.5concept
Question

Why can proteins do so many different jobs?

Answer

The 20 amino acids can be **ordered in countless ways**, giving countless **shapes** — each shape gives a different **function**.

Card 7022.3.1concept
Question

What is the basic structure of a cell membrane?

Answer

A **phospholipid bilayer** — two rows of phospholipids — with proteins, glycoproteins and cholesterol embedded.

Card 7032.3.1definition
Question

What does 'amphipathic' mean?

Answer

Having **both** a hydrophilic (water-loving) part and a hydrophobic (water-hating) part in the same molecule.

Card 7042.3.1concept
Question

Which part of a phospholipid is hydrophilic, and which is hydrophobic?

Answer

The **phosphate head** is hydrophilic (water-loving); the **two fatty-acid tails** are hydrophobic (water-hating).

Card 7052.3.1concept
Question

Why do the hydrophilic heads face outward?

Answer

They are **attracted to the water** present on both the outer and inner surfaces of the membrane.

Card 7062.3.1concept
Question

Why do the hydrophobic tails point inward?

Answer

They are **repelled by water**, so they are pushed into the centre, away from the water, forming the core.

Card 7072.3.1concept
Question

Why does a bilayer form spontaneously?

Answer

Because phospholipids are amphipathic and there is **water on both sides**: heads go to the water, tails away from it, giving two rows.

Card 7082.3.1concept
Question

What does the hydrophobic core do to permeability?

Answer

It makes the membrane **selectively permeable** — small non-polar molecules pass, but large/polar molecules cannot cross freely.

Card 7092.3.1concept
Question

What does a glycoprotein do?

Answer

Acts in **cell recognition** and cell signalling — its carbohydrate chain on the outer surface is an 'identity tag'.

Card 7102.3.1concept
Question

What does cholesterol do in the membrane?

Answer

Wedges between the phospholipids and **stabilises fluidity**, reducing leakiness to small molecules.

Card 7112.3.1definition
Question

Why is the membrane called a 'fluid mosaic'?

Answer

**Fluid** because phospholipids and many proteins drift sideways; **mosaic** because different molecules are dotted through the bilayer like tiles.

Card 7122.3.1concept
Question

How did the Davson–Danielli model differ from the fluid mosaic model?

Answer

Davson–Danielli put **two continuous protein layers** coating the bilayer; the fluid mosaic model **scatters proteins through** it.

Card 7132.3.1concept
Question

What evidence supported the fluid mosaic model over Davson–Danielli?

Answer

Electron-microscopy images showing **proteins embedded within** the bilayer, not just coating its surfaces.

Card 7142.3.1concept
Question

What is the difference between integral and peripheral proteins?

Answer

**Integral** proteins are embedded right through the bilayer (e.g. channels, carriers); **peripheral** proteins rest on one surface.

Card 7152.3.2definition
Question

What does 'passive transport' mean?

Answer

Movement across a membrane that needs **no energy (ATP)** — particles move **down a gradient** on their own.

Card 7162.3.2definition
Question

Define simple diffusion.

Answer

The **net movement of small or non-polar particles** down their concentration gradient, **straight through the phospholipid bilayer**.

Card 7172.3.2definition
Question

Define osmosis.

Answer

The net movement of **water** across a **partially permeable membrane**, from **higher water potential (dilute) to lower (concentrated)**.

Card 7182.3.2concept
Question

Which molecules cross the bilayer easily by simple diffusion?

Answer

**Small, non-polar** molecules — e.g. **O₂, CO₂** — and **lipid-soluble** molecules such as **steroid hormones**.

Card 7192.3.2concept
Question

Why do non-polar molecules pass straight through the membrane?

Answer

The bilayer's core is **non-polar / hydrophobic**, so non-polar molecules are **not repelled** — they dissolve in and pass through.

Card 7202.3.2concept
Question

Why can't charged or large molecules use simple diffusion?

Answer

They are **repelled by the hydrophobic core** (or too large), so they need a **protein** to cross.

Card 7212.3.2concept
Question

Which way does water move in osmosis?

Answer

From the **more dilute** solution to the **more concentrated** one (high → low **water potential**).

Card 7222.3.2definition
Question

What is water potential?

Answer

A measure of how free the water is to move. **Pure water is highest**; adding solute lowers it. Water moves from **high to low** water potential.

Card 7232.3.2definition
Question

What is an aquaporin and what does it do?

Answer

A **channel protein** that lets water cross **quickly**, speeding up osmosis. It uses **no ATP** and doesn't change the direction.

Card 7242.3.2concept
Question

Is osmosis active or passive?

Answer

**Passive** — it uses no ATP, even when aquaporins speed it up.

Card 7252.3.2concept
Question

How does the concentration gradient affect the rate of diffusion?

Answer

A **steeper** gradient gives a **faster** rate of net diffusion; a shallower one gives a slower rate.

Card 7262.3.2concept
Question

On a data graph, what does a rising cell mass tell you?

Answer

Water is **entering** the cell (net water movement in), so the outside solution is **more dilute / hypotonic**.

Card 7272.3.2concept
Question

On a data graph, what does a falling cell mass tell you?

Answer

Water is **leaving** the cell (net water movement out), so the outside solution is **more concentrated / hypertonic**.

Card 7282.3.2concept
Question

Besides the gradient, what else raises the rate of diffusion?

Answer

A **higher temperature** and a **larger membrane surface area**; a **thicker** membrane slows it down.

Card 7292.3.3definition
Question

What is facilitated diffusion?

Answer

The **passive** movement of **ions and large polar molecules** across a membrane through a **channel or carrier protein**, **down the concentration gradient** (no ATP).

Card 7302.3.3concept
Question

Why can't glucose or ions cross the bilayer directly?

Answer

They are **large/polar or charged**, so they are repelled by the **hydrophobic (water-hating) core** of the bilayer — they need a transport protein.

Card 7312.3.3definition
Question

What is a channel protein?

Answer

A membrane protein with an **open water-filled pore** that lets specific ions or polar molecules pass **straight through**.

Card 7322.3.3definition
Question

What is a carrier protein?

Answer

A membrane protein that **binds** a specific molecule and **changes shape** to move it across the membrane.

Card 7332.3.3concept
Question

How does a channel protein differ from a carrier protein?

Answer

A channel is an **open pore** (fast; ions, water); a carrier **binds and changes shape** (slower; glucose, fructose).

Card 7342.3.3concept
Question

In which direction does facilitated diffusion move particles?

Answer

**Down the concentration gradient** — from **high** to **low** concentration.

Card 7352.3.3concept
Question

Does facilitated diffusion use ATP?

Answer

**No** — it is **passive**, because particles move down their concentration gradient.

Card 7362.3.3concept
Question

What is the only difference between simple and facilitated diffusion?

Answer

The **route**: simple diffusion goes **straight through the bilayer**; facilitated diffusion goes **through a protein**. Both are passive and down the gradient.

Card 7372.3.3concept
Question

Which type of protein typically moves ions like Na⁺ and K⁺?

Answer

A **channel protein** (an open pore).

Card 7382.3.3concept
Question

Which type of protein typically moves sugars like glucose and fructose?

Answer

A **carrier protein** (it binds and changes shape).

Card 7392.3.3concept
Question

Why does the rate of facilitated diffusion level off at high concentration?

Answer

The transport proteins become **saturated** — every channel/carrier is occupied, so the rate reaches a **maximum** and cannot rise further.

Card 7402.3.3concept
Question

How do aquaporins relate to facilitated diffusion?

Answer

Aquaporins are **channel proteins** for **water** — water crosses through them by facilitated diffusion (a fast, passive route).

Card 7412.3.4definition
Question

What is active transport?

Answer

The movement of a substance **against** its concentration gradient, using energy from **ATP**.

Card 7422.3.4concept
Question

How is active transport different from diffusion?

Answer

Active transport moves particles **against** the gradient and **uses ATP**; diffusion is passive — **down** the gradient with **no ATP**.

Card 7432.3.4concept
Question

Which protein uses ATP to move particles against a concentration gradient?

Answer

A **pump protein** (the protein responsible for active transport).

Card 7442.3.4concept
Question

What two words tell you a process is active transport?

Answer

**'Against' the gradient** and **'uses ATP'** — either one signals active transport.

Card 7452.3.4concept
Question

What does the sodium-potassium pump do per ATP?

Answer

Pumps **3 sodium ions (Na⁺) out** of the cell and **2 potassium ions (K⁺) in**, both against their gradients.

Card 7462.3.4concept
Question

Which way does the Na⁺/K⁺ pump move each ion?

Answer

**Sodium (Na⁺) OUT**, **potassium (K⁺) IN**.

Card 7472.3.4concept
Question

Why must the sodium-potassium pump run continuously?

Answer

Because ions constantly **leak back** down their gradients; the pump keeps replacing them to **maintain** the gradients.

Card 7482.3.4concept
Question

How does a cell maintain a high internal K⁺ and low internal Na⁺?

Answer

By **active transport** — the Na⁺/K⁺ pump uses **ATP** to keep moving ions against their gradients.

Card 7492.3.4concept
Question

What happens to ion gradients if the cell runs out of ATP?

Answer

The pump stops, ions keep leaking back, and the gradients gradually **even out**.

Card 7502.3.4concept
Question

Is active transport passive or does it need energy?

Answer

It **needs energy** — it always uses **ATP**.

Card 7512.3.4concept
Question

Name the three ways molecules cross the bilayer.

Answer

**Simple diffusion**, **facilitated diffusion** (both passive) and **active transport** (active, uses ATP).

Card 7522.3.4concept
Question

Give one example of active transport other than the Na⁺/K⁺ pump.

Answer

Uptake of **mineral ions by plant root cells** against their concentration gradient.

Card 7532.3.5definition
Question

What does 'selectively (partially) permeable' mean?

Answer

The membrane lets **some substances cross but blocks others**, mainly depending on their **size** and whether they are **polar**.

Card 7542.3.5concept
Question

Which kinds of molecule cross the bilayer freely?

Answer

**Small, non-polar** molecules such as **oxygen** and **carbon dioxide** (water crosses too, helped by aquaporins).

Card 7552.3.5concept
Question

Which kinds of molecule cannot cross the bilayer at all?

Answer

**Large** molecules such as **starch** and **proteins** — they are too big to pass through.

Card 7562.3.5definition
Question

What is dialysis (Visking) tubing used for?

Answer

As a **model** of a partially permeable membrane: its pores let **small** molecules through but hold back **large** ones.

Card 7572.3.5concept
Question

In the dialysis-tubing model, what happens to glucose and starch?

Answer

**Glucose passes out** through the pores (it is small); **starch stays inside** (it is too large).

Card 7582.3.5concept
Question

Why does starch stay inside the dialysis tubing?

Answer

Its molecules are **too large** to fit through the pores of the partially permeable tubing.

Card 7592.3.5definition
Question

What is bulk transport?

Answer

Moving **large amounts of material**, or particles too big to cross the bilayer, **in vesicles** — it **uses ATP**.

Card 7602.3.5definition
Question

Define endocytosis.

Answer

Bulk transport that brings material **INTO** the cell: the membrane **folds inwards** and pinches off a vesicle around the material.

Card 7612.3.5definition
Question

Define exocytosis.

Answer

Bulk transport that releases material **OUT** of the cell: a vesicle **fuses** with the plasma membrane and empties its contents.

Card 7622.3.5concept
Question

Does bulk transport require energy?

Answer

**Yes** — both endocytosis and exocytosis **use ATP**, so bulk transport is **active**.

Card 7632.3.5concept
Question

Give a cellular use of endocytosis.

Answer

Taking in **large food particles** or engulfing a **pathogen** (e.g. a white blood cell engulfing a bacterium).

Card 7642.3.5concept
Question

Give a cellular use of exocytosis.

Answer

**Secreting** proteins, **enzymes** or **hormones** (e.g. a gland cell releasing a digestive enzyme).

Card 7652.3.5concept
Question

How can you remember endo vs exo?

Answer

**Endo** = **into** the cell ('enter'); **exo** = **exit** the cell.

Card 7662.4.1definition
Question

What is an organelle?

Answer

A structure inside a cell that carries out a **specific function** (a 'little organ').

Card 7672.4.1definition
Question

What is a membrane-bound organelle?

Answer

An organelle **surrounded by its own membrane** (e.g. nucleus, mitochondrion, Golgi apparatus).

Card 7682.4.1concept
Question

What is the function of the nucleus?

Answer

It **holds the cell's DNA** and **controls** the cell's activities.

Card 7692.4.1concept
Question

What is the function of the mitochondrion?

Answer

It is the site of **aerobic respiration**, releasing **energy (ATP)** for the cell.

Card 7702.4.1concept
Question

What is the function of a ribosome?

Answer

It **builds proteins** by joining amino acids (protein synthesis).

Card 7712.4.1concept
Question

Which organelle is NOT membrane-bound?

Answer

The **ribosome** — it is the only organelle without a membrane.

Card 7722.4.1concept
Question

What is the function of the rough endoplasmic reticulum (rough ER)?

Answer

It **makes and transports proteins** (its surface is studded with ribosomes).

Card 7732.4.1concept
Question

What is the function of the Golgi apparatus?

Answer

It **modifies, packages and sorts proteins** into **vesicles** for transport or export.

Card 7742.4.1concept
Question

Which organelle packages and modifies polypeptides into vesicles?

Answer

The **Golgi apparatus**.

Card 7752.4.1concept
Question

Name the three organelles of the protein-export 'production line', in order.

Answer

**Ribosomes / rough ER → Golgi apparatus → vesicle** (build → package → transport out).

Card 7762.4.1concept
Question

How can you tell a structure belongs to a eukaryotic cell?

Answer

If it is a **membrane-bound organelle** — prokaryotes have no membrane-bound organelles, only ribosomes.

Card 7772.4.1concept
Question

In an identify-and-state question, what two things must you give for each organelle?

Answer

Its correct **name** AND a **specific function** (a vague function scores no marks).

Card 7782.4.2definition
Question

What does 'compartmentalization' mean in a cell?

Answer

**Dividing the inside of the cell into separate membrane-bound spaces** (compartments) — most are the membrane-bound organelles.

Card 7792.4.2definition
Question

What is a membrane-bound organelle?

Answer

An organelle surrounded by its own membrane (e.g. nucleus, mitochondrion, lysosome), creating a **compartment** separate from the cytoplasm.

Card 7802.4.2concept
Question

Give one advantage of compartmentalization.

Answer

It **separates incompatible reactions** (or: concentrates enzymes/substrates; encloses harmful substances; adds membrane surface; keeps local optimum conditions).

Card 7812.4.2concept
Question

Why does concentrating enzymes and substrates in a compartment help?

Answer

The molecules for a reaction are gathered in a **small space**, so the reaction happens **faster**.

Card 7822.4.2concept
Question

Why is it useful to enclose digestive enzymes in a lysosome?

Answer

The membrane keeps the enzymes **separate**, so they **cannot digest or damage the rest of the cell**.

Card 7832.4.2concept
Question

How can folded internal membranes help a compartment?

Answer

They provide extra **membrane surface area** for membrane-bound reactions (e.g. the folded inner membrane of a mitochondrion).

Card 7842.4.2concept
Question

What general rule links organelle number to a cell's job?

Answer

**More of an organelle = more of its job** — a cell that does a lot of a process has a lot of the organelle that carries it out.

Card 7852.4.2concept
Question

A cell has many mitochondria. What does its job involve?

Answer

A lot of **aerobic respiration** to release **ATP** — so the cell is very **active** (e.g. a muscle cell).

Card 7862.4.2concept
Question

A cell has extensive endoplasmic reticulum. What does its job involve?

Answer

A lot of **making and processing molecules** (proteins, lipids, detoxification) — e.g. a liver cell.

Card 7872.4.2concept
Question

How do you answer a 'Suggest why this cell has lots of organelle X' question?

Answer

**Link structure to function** — state what organelle X does, then say the cell does a **lot** of that process.

Card 7882.4.2concept
Question

Why does naming an organelle alone score no marks?

Answer

The mark is for the **link** between the feature and the cell's function, not for the label itself.

Card 7892.4.2concept
Question

Do prokaryotic cells have internal compartments?

Answer

**No** — they have no membrane-bound organelles, so their reactions share one space (the cytoplasm).

Card 7902.4.3concept
Question

Which four structures are found in EVERY cell?

Answer

**DNA, cytoplasm, a plasma membrane and ribosomes** — present in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes.

Card 7912.4.3definition
Question

What is an organelle?

Answer

A **structure inside a cell** that carries out a particular job (e.g. nucleus, mitochondrion, chloroplast).

Card 7922.4.3definition
Question

Define a prokaryotic cell.

Answer

A cell with **no nucleus and no membrane-bound organelles**; its DNA is free in the cytoplasm (e.g. a bacterium).

Card 7932.4.3definition
Question

Define a eukaryotic cell.

Answer

A cell that keeps its DNA inside a **nucleus** and contains **membrane-bound organelles** (e.g. animal, plant, fungal cells).

Card 7942.4.3concept
Question

What single structure separates prokaryotes from eukaryotes?

Answer

The **nucleus** — prokaryotes have none (DNA free in the cytoplasm); eukaryotes enclose their DNA in a nucleus.

Card 7952.4.3concept
Question

Name an organelle found in plant cells but not animal cells.

Answer

A **chloroplast** (also acceptable: large central vacuole, or cellulose cell wall).

Card 7962.4.3concept
Question

Name a structure common to prokaryotic AND eukaryotic cells.

Answer

**Ribosomes** (also: plasma membrane, DNA, cytoplasm).

Card 7972.4.3concept
Question

Which three structures do plant cells have that animal cells lack?

Answer

A **cellulose cell wall**, **chloroplasts** and a **large central vacuole**.

Card 7982.4.3concept
Question

Do both plant and animal cells have mitochondria?

Answer

**Yes** — both are eukaryotic, so both have a nucleus, mitochondria, ribosomes and a plasma membrane.

Card 7992.4.3concept
Question

Why is 'has a cell wall' a weak answer for identifying a plant cell?

Answer

Because plants (cellulose), fungi (chitin) and most bacteria (peptidoglycan) all have cell walls — the material differs.

Card 8002.4.3concept
Question

A cell has a nucleus and a cell wall but no chloroplast. What is it likely to be?

Answer

A **fungal cell** — eukaryotic with a wall, but no chloroplast (so not a plant).

Card 8012.4.3concept
Question

In a tick table, how do you read off the cell type quickly?

Answer

No nucleus → **prokaryote**; nucleus + chloroplast → **plant**; nucleus, no chloroplast → **animal**.

Card 8022.4.3concept
Question

Are prokaryotic or eukaryotic cells generally larger?

Answer

**Eukaryotic** cells are larger (about 10–100 µm); prokaryotes are smaller (about 1–5 µm).

Card 8032.4.4concept
Question

What does the endosymbiotic theory state?

Answer

Mitochondria and chloroplasts began as **free-living prokaryotes** that were **engulfed** by a host cell and **survived inside it**, becoming organelles.

Card 8042.4.4definition
Question

What does 'endosymbiosis' literally mean?

Answer

'**Endo**' = inside, '**symbiosis**' = living together — one cell living permanently inside another, with both benefiting.

Card 8052.4.4concept
Question

Which bacterium became the mitochondrion?

Answer

An **aerobic (oxygen-using) bacterium** — it carries out aerobic respiration to release energy for the host.

Card 8062.4.4concept
Question

Which bacterium became the chloroplast?

Answer

A **photosynthetic bacterium** — it makes food using light, in plant and algal cells.

Card 8072.4.4concept
Question

What is the sequence of endosymbiosis?

Answer

**Engulf** the bacterium -> it **survives** inside -> the relationship **benefits both** -> the bacterium is **kept** and becomes an organelle.

Card 8082.4.4concept
Question

By what process did the host cell take in the bacterium?

Answer

**Endocytosis** — the host membrane folded around the bacterium, so it ended up inside a vesicle.

Card 8092.4.4concept
Question

List the four pieces of evidence for endosymbiosis.

Answer

Each organelle has its **own DNA**, its **own 70S ribosomes**, a **double membrane**, and divides by **binary fission**.

Card 8102.4.4concept
Question

What size are the ribosomes inside a mitochondrion or chloroplast?

Answer

**70S** — the smaller, bacterial type. The host cell's cytoplasm uses larger **80S** ribosomes.

Card 8112.4.4concept
Question

Why does a chloroplast have a double membrane?

Answer

The **inner** membrane is the bacterium's own; the **outer** membrane came from the host's vesicle when the bacterium was engulfed.

Card 8122.4.4concept
Question

Why does a leaf cell contain two different sizes of ribosome?

Answer

The cytoplasm uses **80S** ribosomes, but the chloroplast keeps the **70S** ribosomes of its free-living bacterial ancestor.

Card 8132.4.4concept
Question

How do mitochondria and chloroplasts reproduce inside the cell?

Answer

By **binary fission** — splitting in two on their own, just like the free-living bacteria they descended from.

Card 8142.4.4concept
Question

Why are chloroplasts found only in plants and algae, but mitochondria in almost all eukaryotes?

Answer

Only some cells engulfed the **photosynthetic** partner (-> chloroplast); the **aerobic** partner (-> mitochondrion) was engulfed by the ancestor of nearly all eukaryotes.

Card 8152.5.1definition
Question

What is differentiation?

Answer

The process by which an **unspecialized cell** develops into a **specialized cell** with a particular structure and function.

Card 8162.5.1definition
Question

What is an unspecialized cell?

Answer

A cell that has **no particular job yet** and can still develop into different cell types (e.g. a stem cell).

Card 8172.5.1definition
Question

What is a specialized cell?

Answer

A cell with a **particular structure suited to one particular function** (e.g. a neuron or red blood cell).

Card 8182.5.1concept
Question

Name the process that produces specialized cells such as neurons from unspecialized cells.

Answer

**Differentiation**.

Card 8192.5.1concept
Question

What process is required to develop specialized tissues in a multicellular organism?

Answer

**Differentiation** — it produces the specialized cell types that group into tissues.

Card 8202.5.1concept
Question

How does cell division differ from differentiation?

Answer

**Cell division (mitosis)** makes **more** cells (identical copies); **differentiation** makes cells **different** (specialized).

Card 8212.5.1concept
Question

Which process increases the NUMBER of cells?

Answer

**Cell division (mitosis)** — it makes more identical cells.

Card 8222.5.1concept
Question

Which process increases the VARIETY of cell types?

Answer

**Differentiation** — it makes cells become different from one another.

Card 8232.5.1concept
Question

In what order do division and differentiation build a body?

Answer

First **cell division** makes many identical cells, then **differentiation** makes them into specialized types.

Card 8242.5.1concept
Question

Why does a multicellular organism need differentiation?

Answer

So cells can **specialize for one job each** (division of labour), letting the whole organism do many jobs efficiently.

Card 8252.5.1concept
Question

Where does the word 'differentiation' come from?

Answer

From **'different'** — it makes cells become **different from one another** (specialized).

Card 8262.5.1concept
Question

Do all the specialized cells in one organism contain the same genes?

Answer

**Yes** — they all came from the same original cell and share the same genes, but they differentiated into different types.

Card 8272.5.2definition
Question

What is differentiation?

Answer

The process by which an **unspecialized cell becomes a specialized cell** with a particular structure and function.

Card 8282.5.2concept
Question

Do all body cells of an organism have the same genome?

Answer

**Yes** — every body cell carries the same complete set of genes (the same genome).

Card 8292.5.2concept
Question

If the genome is the same in every cell, what makes cell types differ?

Answer

**Different genes are expressed** (switched on) in each cell type — not different genes present.

Card 8302.5.2definition
Question

What is gene expression?

Answer

Switching a gene **'on'** so it is used to make its **protein**. An expressed gene is active; an unexpressed gene is silent.

Card 8312.5.2definition
Question

What is selective gene expression?

Answer

Expressing **only some** of the genes in the genome — different genes in different cell types — so each cell makes only the proteins it needs.

Card 8322.5.2concept
Question

What tells a cell which genes to switch on during development?

Answer

**Chemical signal gradients** — the concentration of signalling molecule a cell meets depends on its **position**.

Card 8332.5.2definition
Question

What is a concentration gradient of a signal?

Answer

A smooth change in the concentration of a signalling molecule — **high near its source**, lower further away.

Card 8342.5.2concept
Question

How does position in a gradient affect a cell?

Answer

A cell's **position** sets the **signal concentration** it meets, which switches on a **particular set of genes**, deciding the cell type it becomes.

Card 8352.5.2concept
Question

What is the outcome when an unspecialized cell meets a signal gradient?

Answer

It **differentiates** — switching on specific genes and becoming a specialized cell type.

Card 8362.5.2concept
Question

Why do expressed genes make a cell specialized?

Answer

The genes switched on are used to make **specific proteins**, which give the cell its specialized **structure and function**.

Card 8372.5.2concept
Question

Are genes deleted from a cell when it differentiates?

Answer

**No** — unused genes are switched **off**, not removed. The cell keeps the full genome.

Card 8382.5.2concept
Question

State the cause-and-effect chain of differentiation.

Answer

Position in gradient → **signal concentration** detected → **genes** switched on → **proteins** made → specialized **cell type**.

Card 8392.5.3definition
Question

What is a stem cell?

Answer

An **unspecialized** cell that can **self-renew** (keep dividing) and **differentiate** into specialized cell types.

Card 8402.5.3concept
Question

What are the two defining properties of a stem cell?

Answer

**Self-renewal** (divides to make more stem cells) and **differentiation** (becomes specialized cells). Both are needed.

Card 8412.5.3definition
Question

Define potency.

Answer

A measure of **how many different cell types** a stem cell can differentiate into.

Card 8422.5.3concept
Question

What does totipotent mean, and give an example?

Answer

Can become **any cell type plus the placenta**. Example: the **zygote** / very early embryo.

Card 8432.5.3concept
Question

What does pluripotent mean, and give an example?

Answer

Can become **any cell type of the body** (but not the placenta). Example: **embryonic stem cells**.

Card 8442.5.3concept
Question

What does multipotent mean, and give an example?

Answer

Can become a **limited family of related** cell types. Example: **blood-forming cells in red bone marrow**.

Card 8452.5.3concept
Question

What does unipotent mean?

Answer

Can become **only one** cell type.

Card 8462.5.3concept
Question

What is the key difference between totipotent and pluripotent cells?

Answer

**Totipotent** cells can also form the **placenta**; **pluripotent** cells cannot.

Card 8472.5.3concept
Question

How does potency change as cells develop?

Answer

Potency **decreases** (and specialization increases) as cells differentiate — adult stem cells are usually only multipotent or unipotent.

Card 8482.5.3definition
Question

What is a stem-cell niche?

Answer

The **location in the body** where a particular stem cell is found (e.g. red bone marrow for blood-forming stem cells).

Card 8492.5.3concept
Question

Classify a blood-forming stem cell by potency and niche.

Answer

**Multipotent** (forms the family of blood cells); niche = the **red bone marrow**.

Card 8502.5.3concept
Question

Where are pluripotent stem cells found in a developing organism?

Answer

In the **early embryo** — they are the **embryonic stem cells**.

Card 8512.5.4definition
Question

What is a stem cell?

Answer

An **unspecialized** cell that can **divide (self-renew)** and **differentiate** into one or more specialized cell types.

Card 8522.5.4concept
Question

Which two properties make stem cells useful in medicine?

Answer

They can **divide** to make many cells, and they can **differentiate** into the specialized cell type that is needed.

Card 8532.5.4definition
Question

What is self-renewal?

Answer

A stem cell's ability to **divide by mitosis** to make more cells (including more stem cells), so the supply is not used up.

Card 8542.5.4definition
Question

What is differentiation?

Answer

The process by which an **unspecialized** cell becomes a **specialized** cell with a particular structure and function.

Card 8552.5.4concept
Question

How do stem cells treat a disease that destroys a cell type?

Answer

They **divide** to make many new cells, then **differentiate** into the exact lost cell type, replacing the missing cells and restoring function.

Card 8562.5.4concept
Question

Why are stem cells suitable to replace cells the body cannot regrow?

Answer

Because they can **divide** to make enough cells and **differentiate** into the specific specialized cell that was lost.

Card 8572.5.4concept
Question

Where do embryonic stem cells come from, and how flexible are they?

Answer

From **very early embryos**; they can become **almost any** cell type (very flexible).

Card 8582.5.4concept
Question

Where do adult (tissue) stem cells come from?

Answer

From **body tissues** such as **bone marrow**; they can become only a **few** related cell types.

Card 8592.5.4concept
Question

What is the main ethical issue with embryonic stem cells?

Answer

They are taken from an **early embryo**, which would otherwise develop — this raises **ethical objections**.

Card 8602.5.4concept
Question

Why do adult stem cells raise fewer ethical concerns?

Answer

**No embryo is used** — they are taken from body tissues, often from the patient themselves.

Card 8612.5.4concept
Question

Give one therapeutic use of stem cells.

Answer

**Replacing cells lost to disease or injury** (e.g. blood, nerve or skin cells) that the body cannot regrow on its own.

Card 8622.5.4concept
Question

In stem-cell data, what shows division and what shows differentiation?

Answer

A **rise in cell number** shows **division**; the appearance of **named specialized cells** shows **differentiation**.

Card 8632.5.5definition
Question

What is a specialized cell?

Answer

A cell whose **structure is adapted** to carry out a **particular function** efficiently.

Card 8642.5.5concept
Question

How do cells become specialized?

Answer

By **differentiation** — switching on (expressing) a particular set of their genes.

Card 8652.5.5concept
Question

What is the single rule for this whole topic?

Answer

**Structure follows function** — a cell's shape and contents match the job it does.

Card 8662.5.5concept
Question

How does a red blood cell's structure suit carrying oxygen?

Answer

**Biconcave** shape (large surface area) and **no nucleus** → more room for **haemoglobin** to carry O₂.

Card 8672.5.5concept
Question

How is an intestine lining cell adapted to absorb nutrients?

Answer

**Microvilli** give a large **surface area**; **many mitochondria** supply **energy (ATP)** for active transport.

Card 8682.5.5concept
Question

How is a sperm cell adapted to its function?

Answer

A **tail (flagellum)** and many **mitochondria** → energy to **swim** to the egg.

Card 8692.5.5concept
Question

How is a neuron adapted to its function?

Answer

A very **long fibre (axon)** → carries **electrical impulses** over long distances.

Card 8702.5.5concept
Question

How is a palisade mesophyll cell adapted for photosynthesis?

Answer

**Column shape near the upper leaf surface**, packed with **chloroplasts** → absorbs the most **light**.

Card 8712.5.5concept
Question

How is a root hair cell adapted to its function?

Answer

A **long, thin projection** into the soil → large **surface area** to absorb **water and minerals**.

Card 8722.5.5concept
Question

Which specialized cell is the largest, and why?

Answer

The **egg cell (ovum)** — it stores **food reserves** for the early embryo.

Card 8732.5.5concept
Question

Which specialized cells are among the smallest?

Answer

The **sperm cell** (stripped down to swim) and the **red blood cell** (small and flexible for capillaries).

Card 8742.5.5concept
Question

How should you answer 'Explain how structure adapts a cell to its function'?

Answer

In **feature → function pairs** — name a structure AND the job it makes possible; one mark per linked pair.

Card 8752.5.6definition
Question

What is a 'typical' cell?

Answer

A cell that fits the standard description: **one nucleus**, **microscopic** size, and its **own sealed membrane** (and wall in plants/fungi).

Card 8762.5.6definition
Question

What does 'atypical cell' mean?

Answer

A cell that **does not fit the typical description** — e.g. it lacks a nucleus, has many nuclei, is unusually large, or shares its cytoplasm.

Card 8772.5.6definition
Question

What does 'anucleate' mean?

Answer

Having **no nucleus**. ('a-' = without.)

Card 8782.5.6definition
Question

What does 'multinucleate' mean?

Answer

Having **many nuclei** inside one cell or fibre. ('multi-' = many.)

Card 8792.5.6definition
Question

What does 'aseptate' mean?

Answer

Having **no cross-walls (septa)**, so the cytoplasm is **continuous** — seen in some fungal hyphae.

Card 8802.5.6concept
Question

Name two anucleate (atypical) cells.

Answer

A **mature mammalian red blood cell** and a **phloem sieve tube element** — both lose their nucleus.

Card 8812.5.6concept
Question

Which atypical cell is multinucleate, and why?

Answer

A **skeletal (striated) muscle fibre** — many cells **fuse** into one long fibre with many nuclei.

Card 8822.5.6concept
Question

Why does a red blood cell lose its nucleus?

Answer

To leave **more room for haemoglobin**, so it can **carry more oxygen**.

Card 8832.5.6concept
Question

Why is a giant single-celled alga atypical?

Answer

It breaks the rule that cells are microscopic — a **single cell** can be **several centimetres long**.

Card 8842.5.6concept
Question

What is unusual about an aseptate fungal hypha?

Answer

It has **no cross-walls**, so the **cytoplasm is continuous** and **many nuclei are shared** along the thread.

Card 8852.5.6concept
Question

Are atypical features faults or adaptations?

Answer

**Adaptations** — each unusual feature usually helps the cell do a **specific job**.

Card 8862.5.6concept
Question

How can counting nuclei help spot an atypical cell?

Answer

**Zero** nuclei = anucleate; **many** nuclei = multinucleate; **one** nucleus = typical.

Card 8872.6.1definition
Question

What is a gas-exchange surface?

Answer

The thin boundary where gases pass between the body and the environment — e.g. the wall of an **alveolus** in the lung.

Card 8882.6.1concept
Question

By what process do gases cross a gas-exchange surface?

Answer

**Diffusion** — the passive net movement of particles from **high** to **low** concentration.

Card 8892.6.1concept
Question

Why is no energy needed for gas exchange?

Answer

Diffusion is **passive**: particles move on their own down the **concentration gradient**, so no energy (ATP) is used.

Card 8902.6.1concept
Question

Name the four features of a good gas-exchange surface.

Answer

**Large** surface area, **thin** (short diffusion distance), **moist** and **permeable**.

Card 8912.6.1concept
Question

Why does a large surface area help gas exchange?

Answer

More gas can diffuse across **at the same time**, so exchange is faster.

Card 8922.6.1concept
Question

Why does a thin surface help gas exchange?

Answer

The wall is only **one cell thick**, giving a **short diffusion distance**, so diffusion is fast.

Card 8932.6.1concept
Question

Why is the gas-exchange surface moist?

Answer

A thin film of water lets the gases **dissolve** before they cross the membrane.

Card 8942.6.1concept
Question

In which direction does oxygen diffuse in the lungs?

Answer

From the **alveolar air into the blood** (from higher to lower oxygen concentration).

Card 8952.6.1concept
Question

In which direction does carbon dioxide diffuse in the lungs?

Answer

From the **blood into the alveolar air** (from higher to lower carbon dioxide concentration).

Card 8962.6.1concept
Question

How does ventilation help maintain the gradient?

Answer

Fresh air keeps alveolar **oxygen high** and **carbon dioxide low**, so the gradient stays steep.

Card 8972.6.1concept
Question

How does blood flow help maintain the gradient?

Answer

It carries blood away and brings fresh blood in, keeping capillary **oxygen low** and **carbon dioxide high**.

Card 8982.6.1concept
Question

What happens to diffusion if the concentrations on both sides become equal?

Answer

Net diffusion **stops** — which is why the gradient must be kept **steep** by ventilation and blood flow.

Card 8992.6.2definition
Question

What is an alveolus?

Answer

A tiny **air sac** in the lung where **gas exchange** between air and blood takes place.

Card 9002.6.2concept
Question

Which two gases are exchanged at an alveolus, and in which direction?

Answer

**Oxygen** diffuses from the air into the blood; **carbon dioxide** diffuses from the blood into the air.

Card 9012.6.2concept
Question

List the adaptations of an alveolus for gas exchange.

Answer

**Large surface area**, wall **one cell thick** (short diffusion distance), **moist lining**, and a **rich blood supply**.

Card 9022.6.2concept
Question

Why are there millions of tiny alveoli rather than one large sac?

Answer

Many tiny sacs pack a **huge total surface area** into the chest, and surface area controls how fast gases diffuse.

Card 9032.6.2concept
Question

What is the function of a type I pneumocyte?

Answer

It is a **thin, flat cell** forming most of the alveolar wall, giving a **short diffusion distance** — it is the gas-exchange surface.

Card 9042.6.2concept
Question

What is the function of a type II pneumocyte?

Answer

It **secretes surfactant** onto the moist alveolar lining.

Card 9052.6.2concept
Question

What is the function of a phagocyte in the alveolus?

Answer

It **engulfs and digests** pathogens, dust and debris that are breathed in, keeping the surface clean.

Card 9062.6.2definition
Question

What is surfactant?

Answer

A fluid secreted by type II pneumocytes that **lowers the surface tension** of the moist alveolar lining.

Card 9072.6.2concept
Question

What is the role of surfactant? (2 marks)

Answer

It **lowers surface tension**, so alveoli **do not collapse** on exhalation and the lungs are **easier to inflate**.

Card 9082.6.2concept
Question

Why does a thin alveolar wall help gas exchange?

Answer

A wall **one cell thick** gives a **short diffusion distance**, so gases cross the wall quickly.

Card 9092.6.2concept
Question

Why does a rich capillary network help gas exchange?

Answer

It keeps a **steep concentration gradient** by carrying gases away, so diffusion stays fast.

Card 9102.6.2concept
Question

Predict the consequence of destroying the type II pneumocytes.

Answer

**No surfactant** is made → surface tension stays high → **alveoli collapse** → reduced gas exchange.

Card 9112.6.3definition
Question

What is ventilation?

Answer

The movement of **air into and out of the lungs** (breathing) — it keeps fresh air at the gas-exchange surface.

Card 9122.6.3concept
Question

Do the lungs have their own muscle to pull air in?

Answer

**No** — lungs have no muscle. The **diaphragm** and **intercostal muscles** change the chest's volume to move air.

Card 9132.6.3definition
Question

What is the diaphragm and what does it do when it contracts?

Answer

A sheet of muscle below the lungs. When it **contracts** it **flattens and moves down**, increasing the volume of the thorax.

Card 9142.6.3concept
Question

Where are the intercostal muscles, and what do the external ones do during inhalation?

Answer

Between the ribs. The **external intercostals contract** to pull the ribs **up and out**.

Card 9152.6.3concept
Question

Give the cause-effect chain for breathing.

Answer

**Muscles → volume → pressure → air flow.** Muscles change the volume, which changes the pressure, and air moves down the pressure gradient.

Card 9162.6.3concept
Question

During inhalation, what happens to thoracic volume and pressure?

Answer

Volume **increases**, so pressure **falls below atmospheric** — and air flows **in**.

Card 9172.6.3concept
Question

During exhalation, what happens to thoracic volume and pressure?

Answer

Volume **decreases**, so pressure **rises above atmospheric** — and air flows **out**.

Card 9182.6.3concept
Question

Why does air flow into the lungs during inhalation?

Answer

Because the pressure inside has **fallen below atmospheric**, and air always moves from **high to low** pressure.

Card 9192.6.3concept
Question

Is resting exhalation active or passive?

Answer

**Passive** — the muscles simply **relax** (no contraction needed); the diaphragm domes up and the ribs drop.

Card 9202.6.3concept
Question

What causes the thorax to expand during inspiration?

Answer

The **diaphragm and external intercostal muscles contracting**.

Card 9212.6.3concept
Question

Name a muscle group besides the diaphragm that contracts to cause inspiration.

Answer

The **external intercostal muscles**.

Card 9222.6.3concept
Question

On a lung-pressure trace, how do you spot inhalation versus exhalation?

Answer

Pressure **below** atmospheric = **inhaling** (volume rising); pressure **above** atmospheric = **exhaling** (volume falling).

Card 9232.6.3concept
Question

How do volume and pressure change relative to each other?

Answer

In **opposite** directions — bigger volume means lower pressure, smaller volume means higher pressure.

Card 9242.6.4definition
Question

What is a spirometer?

Answer

An instrument that **measures the air a person breathes in and out**, recording it as a **trace** of lung volume against time.

Card 9252.6.4definition
Question

Define tidal volume (TV).

Answer

The volume of air in **one normal, resting breath** — the height of one small wave on the trace.

Card 9262.6.4definition
Question

Define vital capacity (VC).

Answer

The **largest volume of air moved in one breath**: IRV + TV + ERV (deepest breath in to fullest breath out).

Card 9272.6.4definition
Question

Define residual volume (RV).

Answer

Air that **always stays in the lungs** and cannot be breathed out — so it never appears on the trace.

Card 9282.6.4concept
Question

How do you read vital capacity off a trace?

Answer

Measure the volume from the **top of the deepest breath in** to the **bottom of the fullest breath out**.

Card 9292.6.4concept
Question

How do you find the ventilation rate from a trace?

Answer

**Count the complete waves (breaths) in one minute.**

Card 9302.6.4concept
Question

What is the function of the one-way valves in a spirometer?

Answer

They keep **inhaled and exhaled air on separate tubes** so the two airstreams do not mix.

Card 9312.6.4concept
Question

What does the soda lime do in a spirometer?

Answer

It **absorbs the carbon dioxide breathed out**, so the person re-breathes air without a CO₂ build-up.

Card 9322.6.4concept
Question

Why does the resting baseline slope downward over time?

Answer

**Oxygen is used up in respiration** and the **CO₂ is absorbed by the soda lime (not replaced)**, so the total gas in the closed circuit falls.

Card 9332.6.4concept
Question

During inspiration, does the spirometer pen rise or fall?

Answer

It **rises** — air is drawn out of the chamber, the drum sinks and the pen goes up.

Card 9342.6.4concept
Question

How does the trace change during exercise?

Answer

The waves become **taller (larger tidal volume)** and **closer together (faster rate)**, raising the air inhaled per minute.

Card 9352.6.4concept
Question

How does total lung capacity relate to vital capacity?

Answer

**Total lung capacity = vital capacity + residual volume** — the residual volume can never be breathed out.

Card 9362.6.5definition
Question

What is emphysema?

Answer

A lung disease in which the **walls between alveoli are destroyed**, so the sacs merge into **fewer, larger** spaces with a much smaller surface area for gas exchange.

Card 9372.6.5concept
Question

What is the DIRECT effect of alveolar destruction in emphysema?

Answer

A **reduced surface area** for gas exchange.

Card 9382.6.5concept
Question

Why does emphysema slow oxygen uptake into the blood?

Answer

Less surface area (and a longer / damaged diffusion path) means oxygen diffuses into the blood **more slowly**.

Card 9392.6.5concept
Question

What is elastic recoil, and what happens to it in emphysema?

Answer

Elastic recoil lets the lung spring back to push air out. In emphysema it is **lost**, so air is **trapped** and exhaling is hard.

Card 9402.6.5concept
Question

Name the TWO ways emphysema impairs gas exchange.

Answer

It **reduces the surface area** (fewer, larger sacs) AND it **loses elastic recoil** (air is trapped).

Card 9412.6.5concept
Question

How does emphysema affect a person during exercise?

Answer

They cannot raise oxygen uptake enough to meet demand, so they become **breathless**, tire quickly and have **limited exercise** capacity.

Card 9422.6.5concept
Question

What is the main cause of emphysema?

Answer

**Smoking** (cigarette smoke); **air pollution** also contributes.

Card 9432.6.5concept
Question

What national change would most reduce emphysema incidence?

Answer

**Reducing smoking** (anti-smoking laws, stop-smoking support) and **cutting air pollution**.

Card 9442.6.5concept
Question

Why is a large surface area important for gas exchange?

Answer

A larger surface area lets **more oxygen diffuse per breath** — emphysema reduces it, so gas exchange slows.

Card 9452.6.5concept
Question

In emphysema, do the alveoli become smaller or larger?

Answer

**Larger** — small sacs merge into fewer, larger spaces (so there is less surface area).

Card 9462.6.5definition
Question

Define alveolus.

Answer

A tiny **air sac** in the lung where gas exchange occurs; its wall is one cell thick, and millions give a large surface area.

Card 9472.6.5concept
Question

Memory hook for emphysema?

Answer

'**Fewer, bigger, slower**' — fewer, bigger air sacs make gas exchange slower.

Card 9482.6.6definition
Question

What is a stoma?

Answer

A small **pore** in the leaf surface (mostly the underside) through which **gases enter and leave** the leaf.

Card 9492.6.6definition
Question

What do guard cells do?

Answer

The two cells either side of a stoma that change shape to **open or close the pore**, controlling gas exchange and water loss.

Card 9502.6.6concept
Question

On which leaf surface are most stomata found?

Answer

The **lower (under) surface** — this reduces water loss while still allowing gas exchange.

Card 9512.6.6definition
Question

What is the palisade mesophyll, and what does it do?

Answer

A layer of **tall cells packed with chloroplasts** near the upper surface; it carries out **most of the photosynthesis**.

Card 9522.6.6definition
Question

What is the spongy mesophyll, and what do its air spaces do?

Answer

A layer of **loosely-packed cells with large air spaces**; the spaces let **gases diffuse** to and from every cell.

Card 9532.6.6concept
Question

Why is a leaf thin and flat?

Answer

**Thin** = short diffusion distance for gases; **flat and wide** = large surface area for light and gas exchange.

Card 9542.6.6concept
Question

By what process do gases move in and out of a leaf?

Answer

**Diffusion** — from a higher to a lower concentration, with no energy needed.

Card 9552.6.6concept
Question

Trace the path of CO₂ from the air into a chloroplast.

Answer

In through a **stoma** → through the **spongy-mesophyll air spaces** → across the **cell wall and membrane** → into a **chloroplast**.

Card 9562.6.6concept
Question

What does the waxy cuticle do?

Answer

It is a **transparent, waterproof** coating that **reduces water loss** while still letting light through.

Card 9572.6.6concept
Question

What gases enter and leave during photosynthesis in a leaf?

Answer

**CO₂ diffuses in**; **O₂ (and water vapour) diffuse out** — through the stomata.

Card 9582.6.6concept
Question

Why does the spongy mesophyll have air spaces?

Answer

So **CO₂ can reach every cell** and **O₂ can diffuse away** — they are the leaf's internal corridors for gases.

Card 9592.6.6concept
Question

What is the upper epidermis like, and why?

Answer

A single layer of **transparent, tightly-packed cells with no chloroplasts**, so **light passes through** to the palisade cells below.

Card 9602.7.1concept
Question

In which direction does an artery carry blood?

Answer

**Away** from the heart (remember: **A**rtery = **A**way).

Card 9612.7.1concept
Question

In which direction does a vein carry blood?

Answer

**Towards** the heart (it returns blood to the heart).

Card 9622.7.1concept
Question

Describe the wall of an artery.

Answer

**Thick, muscular and elastic**, with a **narrow lumen** — built to withstand **high pressure**.

Card 9632.7.1concept
Question

Describe the wall of a vein.

Answer

**Thin**, with a **wide lumen** and **valves** — it carries blood at **low pressure**.

Card 9642.7.1concept
Question

How thick is the wall of a capillary?

Answer

**One cell thick** — this gives a short diffusion distance for **exchange**.

Card 9652.7.1concept
Question

Why is an artery wall thick, muscular and elastic?

Answer

To **withstand high pressure**: it **stretches** during each surge and **recoils** to push the blood onward.

Card 9662.7.1concept
Question

Why do veins have valves?

Answer

Blood in veins is at **low pressure**, so it could flow backwards — **valves close to stop backflow**.

Card 9672.7.1concept
Question

Why do arteries not need valves?

Answer

Their blood is at **high pressure**, which keeps it flowing forwards, so valves are not needed.

Card 9682.7.1concept
Question

How is a capillary adapted for exchange?

Answer

**Wall one cell thick** (short diffusion distance) and a **large surface area** close to every cell.

Card 9692.7.1definition
Question

What is the lumen of a blood vessel?

Answer

The **hollow space inside** the vessel through which the blood flows.

Card 9702.7.1concept
Question

Which vessel has the widest lumen relative to its wall — artery or vein?

Answer

The **vein** — thin wall and wide lumen; the artery has a thick wall and narrow lumen.

Card 9712.7.1concept
Question

How can you identify an artery on a micrograph?

Answer

It has the **thicker wall** and the **narrower lumen** of the two vessels.

Card 9722.7.1concept
Question

Why does the aorta show a smaller pressure change than the ventricle?

Answer

Its **elastic wall stretches** during the surge and **recoils** between beats, **smoothing** the pressure.

Card 9732.7.1concept
Question

Where in the circulation does exchange of materials with the tissues happen?

Answer

In the **capillaries** — the only vessels with a wall one cell thick.

Card 9742.7.2concept
Question

What are the four chambers of the heart?

Answer

Two **atria** (upper, thin-walled, receive blood) and two **ventricles** (lower, thick-walled, pump blood out).

Card 9752.7.2definition
Question

What is the job of an atrium?

Answer

An **atrium** receives blood from the veins and passes it down into a **ventricle**. Atria have thin walls.

Card 9762.7.2definition
Question

What is the job of a ventricle?

Answer

A **ventricle** pumps blood out into an artery. Ventricles have thick, muscular walls.

Card 9772.7.2concept
Question

Which chamber has the thickest wall, and why?

Answer

The **left ventricle** — it pumps blood to the **whole body** at high pressure, so it needs the most muscle.

Card 9782.7.2concept
Question

Which side of the heart carries deoxygenated blood?

Answer

The **right side** — it receives deoxygenated blood from the body and pumps it to the **lungs**.

Card 9792.7.2concept
Question

Which side of the heart carries oxygenated blood?

Answer

The **left side** — it receives oxygenated blood from the lungs and pumps it to the **body**.

Card 9802.7.2definition
Question

What is the cardiac cycle?

Answer

One complete heartbeat: the repeating sequence of **contraction (systole)** and **relaxation (diastole)** of the heart chambers.

Card 9812.7.2concept
Question

What are the three stages of the cardiac cycle?

Answer

**Atrial systole** (atria contract), **ventricular systole** (ventricles contract) and **diastole** (chambers relax and refill).

Card 9822.7.2concept
Question

What causes the two heart sounds ('lub-dub')?

Answer

Valves shutting: **'lub'** = the AV valves closing, **'dub'** = the semilunar valves closing.

Card 9832.7.2concept
Question

When does a heart valve open?

Answer

When the pressure **behind** it becomes **higher** than the pressure **in front** of it.

Card 9842.7.2definition
Question

What is double circulation?

Answer

Blood passes through the heart **twice** per body circuit — once for the **lungs** (pulmonary circuit) and once for the **body** (systemic circuit).

Card 9852.7.2concept
Question

Why is double circulation an advantage?

Answer

The heart **re-pressurises** blood after the lungs, so the body receives **high-pressure** blood, and oxygenated and deoxygenated blood stay **separate**.

Card 9862.7.2concept
Question

Trace deoxygenated blood from the body to the lungs.

Answer

Vena cava → **right atrium** → **right ventricle** → **pulmonary artery** → lungs.

Card 9872.7.2concept
Question

Trace oxygenated blood from the lungs to the body.

Answer

Pulmonary vein → **left atrium** → **left ventricle** → **aorta** → body.

Card 9882.7.2concept
Question

Which vessels break the 'arteries carry oxygenated blood' rule?

Answer

The **pulmonary artery** (deoxygenated) and the **pulmonary vein** (oxygenated).

Card 9892.7.3definition
Question

What is blood pressure?

Answer

The **force** that flowing blood exerts on the **walls of the arteries**, written as two numbers (e.g. 120/80).

Card 9902.7.3definition
Question

What is systolic blood pressure?

Answer

The **higher** number — the pressure when the **ventricles contract** and push blood into the arteries.

Card 9912.7.3definition
Question

What is diastolic blood pressure?

Answer

The **lower** number — the pressure when the **ventricles relax** between beats and the heart refills.

Card 9922.7.3concept
Question

What is the role of LDLs?

Answer

They carry cholesterol **from the liver to the tissues**; excess is **deposited in artery walls** — the 'bad' carrier.

Card 9932.7.3concept
Question

What is the role of HDLs?

Answer

They carry **excess cholesterol away** from tissues and arteries **back to the liver** for disposal — the 'good' carrier.

Card 9942.7.3concept
Question

Which is better: high HDL or high LDL?

Answer

**High HDL** (removes cholesterol) and **low LDL** (which deposits cholesterol in arteries).

Card 9952.7.3definition
Question

What is atherosclerosis?

Answer

The build-up of cholesterol **plaque** in artery walls, which **hardens** and **narrows** the artery.

Card 9962.7.3concept
Question

How does high cholesterol cause coronary heart disease?

Answer

Cholesterol is **deposited in artery walls** → **plaque (atherosclerosis)** → **coronary arteries narrow** → **heart muscle gets less oxygen**.

Card 9972.7.3concept
Question

Name three causes of high blood cholesterol.

Answer

A **diet high in saturated fat**, **smoking**, **lack of exercise**, **obesity**, or an **inherited (genetic)** tendency.

Card 9982.7.3concept
Question

What health risk is linked to too much salt (sodium)?

Answer

It raises **blood pressure** (hypertension), which strains the heart and damages arteries.

Card 9992.7.3concept
Question

Give a short-term effect of exercise on the heart.

Answer

**Heart rate** (and stroke volume / cardiac output) **rises** to deliver more oxygen to working muscles.

Card 10002.7.3concept
Question

Give a long-term effect of exercise on the heart.

Answer

The **heart muscle gets stronger**, so stroke volume rises and the **resting heart rate falls**.

Card 10012.7.3definition
Question

What are the coronary arteries?

Answer

The arteries that supply the **heart muscle itself** with oxygenated blood.

Card 10022.7.3concept
Question

What happens if a coronary artery becomes fully blocked?

Answer

Part of the heart muscle is starved of oxygen and dies — a **heart attack**.

Card 10032.7.4definition
Question

What is transpiration?

Answer

The **loss of water vapour** from the leaves of a plant, mostly through the **stomata**.

Card 10042.7.4definition
Question

What is the xylem?

Answer

Plant tissue made of long, **hollow, dead tubes** that carry **water** (and minerals) **upwards** from roots to leaves.

Card 10052.7.4concept
Question

In which direction does the xylem carry water?

Answer

**Upwards only** — roots → stem → leaves. It never carries water back down.

Card 10062.7.4definition
Question

What is the transpiration stream?

Answer

The continuous, one-way flow of water from the **roots, up the xylem, to the leaves**, driven by transpiration.

Card 10072.7.4definition
Question

What does 'cohesion' mean in the xylem?

Answer

Water molecules **stick to one another**, forming one **continuous, unbroken column**.

Card 10082.7.4definition
Question

What is the 'tension' in cohesion-tension?

Answer

The **pull** on the water column created when water **evaporates** at the leaf; it is transmitted down the xylem.

Card 10092.7.4concept
Question

Explain how transpiration pulls water up.

Answer

Evaporation at the leaf creates **tension**; **cohesion** keeps the column unbroken, so water is **pulled up** the xylem from the roots.

Card 10102.7.4concept
Question

Give two adaptations of xylem vessels.

Answer

They are **hollow dead tubes with no end walls** (one continuous pipe), and have **lignified walls** that stop them collapsing.

Card 10112.7.4concept
Question

Why are xylem walls lignified?

Answer

Lignin makes the wall **strong**, so the vessel does **not collapse** under the tension (pull) of the water column.

Card 10122.7.4concept
Question

Where is lignin found in a root cross-section?

Answer

In the **xylem** — the water-carrying tubes (the central stele), where the strengthened walls show up.

Card 10132.7.4concept
Question

Which conditions speed up transpiration?

Answer

**Hot, dry, windy and bright** conditions — like drying washing on a line.

Card 10142.7.4concept
Question

How does high humidity affect transpiration?

Answer

It **slows it down** — moist surrounding air means a smaller difference, so less water diffuses out.

Card 10152.7.4concept
Question

How does light affect transpiration?

Answer

Light **opens the stomata**, so more water vapour escapes and the rate **increases**.

Card 10162.7.4concept
Question

Where does water enter the plant?

Answer

At the **root hair cells**, which have a large surface area for absorbing water from the soil.

Card 10172.7.5definition
Question

What is the phloem?

Answer

The plant transport tissue that carries **dissolved sugar (sucrose)** around the plant; its conducting cells are living **sieve tubes**.

Card 10182.7.5definition
Question

What is translocation?

Answer

The movement of **dissolved sugar** through the phloem from a **source** to a **sink**.

Card 10192.7.5definition
Question

What is a source in translocation?

Answer

Any part that **makes or releases** sugar — usually a photosynthesising **leaf** (but also a store being broken down).

Card 10202.7.5definition
Question

What is a sink in translocation?

Answer

Any part that **uses or stores** sugar — for example a **growing root**, a **fruit**, or a store being built up.

Card 10212.7.5concept
Question

In which direction can translocation occur?

Answer

**Either up or down** the plant — it always runs from a source to a sink, wherever those are.

Card 10222.7.5concept
Question

How is sugar loaded into the phloem at the source?

Answer

By **active transport** (against its gradient), which uses **ATP**.

Card 10232.7.5concept
Question

Which cell supplies the energy to load sugar into the sieve tube?

Answer

The **companion cell** — it is packed with **mitochondria** and keeps the sieve tube alive.

Card 10242.7.5concept
Question

After sugar is loaded, what makes the sap move?

Answer

Water **follows by osmosis**, raising the **pressure**, which pushes the sap by **bulk flow** to the sink.

Card 10252.7.5definition
Question

What is bulk flow?

Answer

The **mass movement** of the sugary sap along the sieve tubes, driven by the **pressure difference** between source and sink.

Card 10262.7.5concept
Question

Name two structural features of a sieve tube cell.

Answer

**Sieve plates with pores** (sap flows between cells) and **little cytoplasm / no nucleus** at maturity (a clear channel); a **companion cell** sits alongside.

Card 10272.7.5concept
Question

Why is phloem described as living tissue?

Answer

Its sieve tubes are kept alive by **companion cells**, and translocation **needs energy** — it stops if the cells are killed. (Xylem is dead.)

Card 10282.7.5concept
Question

Give two differences between phloem and xylem.

Answer

Phloem carries **sugar**, is **living**, and is **two-way**; xylem carries **water**, is **dead**, and is **one-way** (roots to leaves).

Card 10292.8.1concept
Question

How do animals produce movement?

Answer

**Muscles pull on a skeleton** — the muscle contracts and the skeleton acts as a system of levers.

Card 10302.8.1concept
Question

Why can't one muscle move a bone both ways?

Answer

A muscle can **only contract (pull)** — it cannot push or lengthen itself, so it moves a bone in one direction only.

Card 10312.8.1definition
Question

What is an antagonistic pair?

Answer

Two muscles on **opposite sides of a joint** with **opposite effects** — one bends the joint, its partner straightens it.

Card 10322.8.1concept
Question

At the elbow, which muscle bends it and which straightens it?

Answer

The **biceps** contracts to **bend (flex)** the elbow; the **triceps** contracts to **straighten (extend)** it.

Card 10332.8.1definition
Question

Tendon vs ligament?

Answer

A **tendon** joins **muscle to bone**; a **ligament** joins **bone to bone**.

Card 10342.8.1concept
Question

List the levels of organisation in a muscle, largest to smallest.

Answer

Whole **muscle** → muscle **fibre** (cell) → **myofibril** → **sarcomere** (the contractile unit).

Card 10352.8.2definition
Question

Define a sarcomere.

Answer

The **functional contractile unit** of striated muscle — the region **between two adjacent Z-discs**.

Card 10362.8.2concept
Question

Which filament is thin, and where is it anchored?

Answer

**Actin** is the **thin** filament; it is **anchored to the Z-discs** and projects inward.

Card 10372.8.2concept
Question

Which filament is thick, where does it sit, and what links it?

Answer

**Myosin** is the **thick** filament (with protruding **heads**); it sits in the **centre**, held in register by the **M-line**.

Card 10382.8.2concept
Question

What does titin do?

Answer

A giant **elastic** protein: it **anchors myosin to the Z-disc**, keeps it centred, and provides **recoil / elasticity** (springs the sarcomere back, resists overstretching).

Card 10392.8.2definition
Question

What is the I band?

Answer

The region containing **actin only** (no myosin) — it appears **light** and spans a Z-disc.

Card 10402.8.2concept
Question

Distinguish the A band from the H zone.

Answer

**A band** = the **full length of the myosin** filament (dark, includes the overlap). **H zone** = the **central, myosin-only** part of the A band (no actin overlap).

Card 10412.8.2definition
Question

What is the M-line?

Answer

The **central line** that **links the myosin filaments** and holds them in register.

Card 10422.8.3concept
Question

What is the sliding filament model?

Answer

During contraction the **actin and myosin filaments slide past each other** so they **overlap more**; the sarcomere shortens but the **filaments do not shorten**.

Card 10432.8.3concept
Question

Do the actin and myosin filaments shorten during contraction?

Answer

**No** — they keep the **same length** and simply **slide** to overlap more. Only the **overlap** and the **sarcomere length** change.

Card 10442.8.3concept
Question

What happens to the Z-discs during contraction, and why?

Answer

They are **pulled closer together**, because the actin filaments (anchored to them) slide inward, so the **sarcomere shortens**.

Card 10452.8.3concept
Question

What happens to the I band during contraction?

Answer

It gets **shorter** — the I band is the **actin-only** region, and more overlap leaves less actin uncovered.

Card 10462.8.3concept
Question

What happens to the H zone during contraction?

Answer

It gets **shorter** — the H zone is the **myosin-only** region, and the actin tips slide inward to cover more of the myosin.

Card 10472.8.3concept
Question

Why does the A band stay the same length during contraction?

Answer

The **A band equals the length of the myosin filaments**, and **myosin does not shorten** — so the A band is **unchanged**. This shows the filaments slide, not shrink.

Card 10482.8.3concept
Question

How does shortening of sarcomeres lead to a whole muscle shortening?

Answer

Sarcomeres are joined **end to end (in series)**; when many shorten **together**, their shortenings **add up** along the fibre, so the **whole muscle** shortens.

Card 10492.8.4concept
Question

At rest, what blocks the myosin-binding sites on actin?

Answer

**Tropomyosin** — a thread held in place by **troponin** — lies over and **covers** the binding sites.

Card 10502.8.4concept
Question

What is the role of troponin?

Answer

It **holds tropomyosin** in the blocking position and has a **binding site for Ca²⁺**; when Ca²⁺ binds, it moves tropomyosin away.

Card 10512.8.4concept
Question

What is the role of Ca²⁺ in contraction?

Answer

It is the **switch**: released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum, it **binds troponin**, which **exposes** the myosin-binding sites.

Card 10522.8.4concept
Question

What are the TWO roles of ATP in one cross-bridge cycle?

Answer

One ATP **binds the myosin head to detach** it from actin; that same ATP is then **hydrolysed to re-cock** the head.

Card 10532.8.4definition
Question

What is a 'power stroke'?

Answer

The myosin head **pivoting to pull the actin filament toward the centre** of the sarcomere, shortening it.

Card 10542.8.4concept
Question

How does a muscle relax when stimulation stops?

Answer

**Ca²⁺ is pumped back** into the sarcoplasmic reticulum, so **tropomyosin re-blocks** the binding sites and no new cross-bridges form.

Card 10552.8.4concept
Question

Why does rigor mortis make a body stiff?

Answer

With **no ATP**, the myosin heads **cannot detach** from actin, so the cross-bridges stay **locked**.

Card 10562.8.5concept
Question

Why must skeletal muscles work in antagonistic pairs?

Answer

A muscle can only **pull (contract)**, not push — so a **second muscle** pulling the opposite way is needed to **reverse** the movement.

Card 10572.8.5concept
Question

In an antagonistic pair, what is happening to the two muscles during a movement?

Answer

One muscle **contracts (pulls)** while its **antagonist relaxes** (and is stretched); they **swap** to reverse the movement.

Card 10582.8.5concept
Question

What do the biceps and triceps each do at the elbow?

Answer

**Biceps flexes** (bends) the elbow; **triceps extends** (straightens) it. They are an **antagonistic pair**.

Card 10592.8.5concept
Question

Give the roles of three parts of a synovial joint.

Answer

**Cartilage** reduces friction on the bone ends; **synovial fluid** lubricates; **ligaments** hold bones together and **stabilise** the joint.

Card 10602.8.5definition
Question

Hinge joint vs ball-and-socket joint?

Answer

**Hinge** (elbow, knee) moves in **one plane**; **ball-and-socket** (hip, shoulder) moves in **many directions** and can rotate.

Card 10612.8.5concept
Question

How does the skeleton act as a lever?

Answer

Bones are **levers** that turn about a **joint (pivot)**, so a muscle's pull is converted into a **larger, controlled movement** of the limb.

Card 10622.8.5definition
Question

Tendon vs ligament?

Answer

A **tendon** joins **muscle to bone**; a **ligament** joins **bone to bone**.

Card 10632.9.1definition
Question

What is an ecological niche?

Answer

An organism's **role** in its ecosystem: the **abiotic conditions** it tolerates, **how it obtains food/energy**, and its **interactions** with other species.

Card 10642.9.1concept
Question

What is the difference between a habitat and a niche?

Answer

The **habitat** is **where** an organism lives (its address); the **niche** is **what it does** there and the conditions it needs (its job).

Card 10652.9.1definition
Question

Define an abiotic factor.

Answer

A **non-living**, physical or chemical feature of the environment (e.g. temperature, light, pH, dissolved oxygen, salinity).

Card 10662.9.1definition
Question

Define a biotic factor.

Answer

A condition created by **other living organisms** (e.g. food supply, predators, competitors, disease).

Card 10672.9.1concept
Question

What is the range of tolerance?

Answer

The span of an abiotic factor an organism can survive in — best in the **optimum range**, stressed in the **zones of stress**, and **absent** beyond the **limits of tolerance**.

Card 10682.9.1concept
Question

What happens to an organism in its optimum range?

Answer

It is **most abundant and active** — the conditions are ideal for it.

Card 10692.9.1concept
Question

What happens beyond an organism's limits of tolerance?

Answer

It is **absent** — it cannot survive there at all.

Card 10702.9.1definition
Question

What is an obligate aerobe?

Answer

An organism that **must have oxygen** to survive, because it relies on **aerobic respiration** to release energy.

Card 10712.9.1definition
Question

What is an obligate anaerobe?

Answer

An organism for which **oxygen is toxic**; it survives **only where oxygen is absent** (e.g. waterlogged mud).

Card 10722.9.1concept
Question

Why does an obligate aerobe need oxygen?

Answer

It must carry out **aerobic respiration** to release enough energy, and aerobic respiration **requires oxygen**.

Card 10732.9.1concept
Question

Name one condition for survival for an aquatic organism, with a reason.

Answer

**Dissolved oxygen** — needed for aerobic respiration (for an obligate aerobe).

Card 10742.9.1concept
Question

If a place lacks even one required condition, what happens to the organism?

Answer

It is **absent** there, however good the other conditions are.

Card 10752.9.2definition
Question

Define an abiotic factor.

Answer

A **non-living**, physical or chemical feature of a habitat — e.g. temperature, water, light, pH or salinity.

Card 10762.9.2definition
Question

Define a biotic factor.

Answer

A **living** influence on a habitat — e.g. predators, competitors, food or disease.

Card 10772.9.2concept
Question

Name five common abiotic factors.

Answer

**Temperature, water (moisture), light, pH and salinity** (also oxygen, wind, soil minerals).

Card 10782.9.2definition
Question

What is a range of tolerance?

Answer

The **span of values** of an abiotic factor over which a species can **survive**; outside it, the species is absent.

Card 10792.9.2concept
Question

What happens to a species near the OPTIMUM of an abiotic factor?

Answer

It is most **abundant** — conditions suit it best and its cell processes work well.

Card 10802.9.2concept
Question

What happens BEYOND a species' limit of tolerance?

Answer

The species is **absent** — the factor is too high or too low for it to survive.

Card 10812.9.2definition
Question

What is a limiting factor?

Answer

The one factor in **short (or excess) supply** that holds a species back and stops it living in a place.

Card 10822.9.2concept
Question

How does temperature affect distribution?

Answer

It sets the rate of **enzyme-controlled reactions**; extremes **denature** proteins, so a species is absent where it is too hot or too cold.

Card 10832.9.2concept
Question

How does light affect plant distribution?

Answer

Light is needed for **photosynthesis**, so plants are limited to places with **enough light** (e.g. not in deep shade or deep water).

Card 10842.9.2concept
Question

How does water (moisture) affect distribution?

Answer

Too **little** water causes dehydration; too **much** can drown roots — so each species is restricted to a moisture range it tolerates.

Card 10852.9.2concept
Question

In a data question, what makes a 'factor' answer score full marks?

Answer

Name a specific **abiotic factor** AND give the **reason** for its effect — a bare list of factors only scores half.

Card 10862.9.2concept
Question

Why is a species not found everywhere?

Answer

It lives only where the **abiotic conditions stay within its range of tolerance**; outside those limits it cannot survive.

Card 10872.9.3definition
Question

What is a biome?

Answer

A **large region** with a particular **climate** and a **characteristic community** of organisms (e.g. tropical rainforest, tundra).

Card 10882.9.3concept
Question

Which two abiotic factors are used most to classify biomes?

Answer

**Temperature** and **precipitation** (rainfall).

Card 10892.9.3definition
Question

Define climate.

Answer

The typical pattern of **temperature and precipitation** in a region, averaged over many years.

Card 10902.9.3definition
Question

Define an abiotic factor.

Answer

A **non-living** physical or chemical feature of the environment (e.g. temperature, rainfall, light, soil).

Card 10912.9.3concept
Question

Hot + very dry climate → which biome?

Answer

**Hot desert** — sparse, drought-adapted plants.

Card 10922.9.3concept
Question

Hot + very wet climate → which biome?

Answer

**Tropical rainforest** — dense, tall evergreen trees.

Card 10932.9.3concept
Question

Cold climate → which biome?

Answer

**Tundra** — low mosses, lichens and small shrubs.

Card 10942.9.3concept
Question

Moderate temperature + moderate-to-high rainfall → which biome?

Answer

**Temperate forest** — deciduous broadleaf trees.

Card 10952.9.3concept
Question

On a temperature-vs-precipitation biome graph, how do you identify a biome point?

Answer

Read **both** coordinates (its temperature AND its rainfall) and match them to the biome whose climate fits.

Card 10962.9.3concept
Question

Why does a biome's climate decide its community?

Answer

Climate sets the **vegetation** that can grow, and the vegetation decides which **animals** can live there.

Card 10972.9.3concept
Question

Why are temperature and rainfall the two key factors?

Answer

Plants are the base of the community and are limited most by **how warm it is** and **how much water** there is.

Card 10982.9.3concept
Question

Why do a hot desert and a tropical rainforest differ, though both are hot?

Answer

They differ in **rainfall**: the desert is very dry (sparse plants) and the rainforest is very wet (dense trees).

Card 10992.9.4definition
Question

What is an adaptation?

Answer

A **feature** (structural, physiological or behavioural) that helps an organism **survive and reproduce** in its environment.

Card 11002.9.4definition
Question

What is a xerophyte?

Answer

A plant adapted to live where **water is scarce**, such as a hot desert (e.g. a cactus).

Card 11012.9.4definition
Question

What is a halophyte?

Answer

A plant adapted to live in **salty conditions**, such as a mangrove tree in a coastal swamp.

Card 11022.9.4concept
Question

Name three adaptations of a desert (xerophyte) leaf.

Answer

**Thick waxy cuticle**, **reduced leaf area** (spines/needles), and **sunken stomata** — all reduce water loss.

Card 11032.9.4concept
Question

How do sunken stomata reduce water loss?

Answer

They trap a layer of **humid air** in pits, lowering the water-vapour gradient so **less water escapes**.

Card 11042.9.4concept
Question

Why do some desert plants open their stomata only at night?

Answer

Gas exchange then happens when it is **cooler**, so **less water is lost** than during the hot day (CAM).

Card 11052.9.4concept
Question

How does succulent tissue help a desert plant?

Answer

It **stores water** taken up during rare rains, for use through long dry periods.

Card 11062.9.4concept
Question

What are pneumatophores and what do they do?

Answer

**Aerial 'breathing' roots** of mangroves that grow into the air to **take in oxygen**, because the swamp mud is oxygen-poor.

Card 11072.9.4concept
Question

How do salt glands benefit a mangrove?

Answer

They **excrete excess salt**, keeping internal salt low so water can still be **absorbed by osmosis**.

Card 11082.9.4concept
Question

Why is waterlogged mangrove mud a problem for roots?

Answer

It contains **very little oxygen**, so the roots struggle to **respire** — solved by aerial roots.

Card 11092.9.4concept
Question

State two ways a flower attracts animal pollinators.

Answer

Any two of: **bright colourful petals**, **scent**, sugary **nectar**, a **shape** that fits the pollinator.

Card 11102.9.4concept
Question

How do you turn a habitat's problem into an adaptation?

Answer

Name the **problem** (e.g. losing water, no oxygen, too much salt), then the adaptation is whatever **solves it**.

Card 11112.9.5definition
Question

What is an adaptation?

Answer

A feature that helps an organism **survive and reproduce** in its particular environment.

Card 11122.9.5concept
Question

What are the three types of animal adaptation?

Answer

**Structural** (body parts), **physiological** (internal processes) and **behavioural** (actions).

Card 11132.9.5definition
Question

What is a structural adaptation? Give an example.

Answer

A physical **body feature** — its shape, size or parts. Example: a fennec fox's **large ears** that lose heat.

Card 11142.9.5definition
Question

What is a physiological adaptation? Give an example.

Answer

A way the body **works on the inside**. Example: making very **concentrated urine** to save water.

Card 11152.9.5definition
Question

What is a behavioural adaptation? Give an example.

Answer

Something the animal **does** (an action or habit). Example: **sheltering in a burrow** during the midday heat.

Card 11162.9.5concept
Question

Give one structural, one physiological and one behavioural adaptation to desert heat.

Answer

Structural: **large ears** to lose heat. Physiological: **concentrated urine** to save water. Behavioural: being **active at night**.

Card 11172.9.5concept
Question

How do animals adapt to cold environments?

Answer

Structural: **thick fur and blubber**, small ears. Physiological: **shivering**. Behavioural: **huddling** or **migrating**.

Card 11182.9.5concept
Question

Name four herbivore adaptations for feeding on plants.

Answer

**Grinding teeth**, a **long gut**, **gut microbes** that digest cellulose, and **long feeding times**.

Card 11192.9.5concept
Question

Why do herbivores need gut microbes?

Answer

The microbes digest **cellulose** in plant cell walls, which the animal's own enzymes cannot break down.

Card 11202.9.5concept
Question

Give three behaviours that reduce an animal's risk of being eaten while feeding.

Answer

Staying **alert (vigilant)**, feeding **in a group**, and feeding **near cover** or at dawn/dusk.

Card 11212.9.5concept
Question

Why is 'large ears' alone not enough to score an adaptation mark?

Answer

You must add the **benefit** — large ears, **which lose heat** and keep the animal cool. Name the feature AND say how it helps.

Card 11222.9.5concept
Question

Which command term is used for almost all 2.9.5 questions, and what does it ask?

Answer

**Suggest** — apply the idea of adaptation to a **new animal** and give a plausible, reasoned answer.

Card 11233.1.1definition
Question

What is metabolism?

Answer

**All** of the **enzyme-catalysed** chemical reactions that take place inside a living organism.

Card 11243.1.1definition
Question

What is anabolism?

Answer

The reactions that **build larger molecules** from smaller ones. Anabolism **uses (requires) energy**.

Card 11253.1.1definition
Question

What is catabolism?

Answer

The reactions that **break larger molecules** into smaller ones. Catabolism **releases energy**.

Card 11263.1.1concept
Question

What happens to energy in an anabolic reaction?

Answer

Energy is **used (required)** to build the larger molecule.

Card 11273.1.1concept
Question

What happens to energy in a catabolic reaction?

Answer

Energy is **released** as the larger molecule is broken down.

Card 11283.1.1concept
Question

Which reaction type is usually anabolic?

Answer

**Condensation** — it joins subunits to build larger molecules.

Card 11293.1.1concept
Question

Which reaction type is usually catabolic?

Answer

**Hydrolysis** — it adds water to break larger molecules into subunits.

Card 11303.1.1concept
Question

Give two examples of anabolic processes.

Answer

Making **glycogen** (or starch) from glucose; **protein synthesis**; **photosynthesis**.

Card 11313.1.1concept
Question

Give two examples of catabolic processes.

Answer

**Aerobic respiration**; **digestion**; the **hydrolysis** of macromolecules.

Card 11323.1.1concept
Question

How do you decide if a process is anabolic or catabolic?

Answer

Ask whether the molecule gets **bigger** (anabolic) or **smaller** (catabolic).

Card 11333.1.1concept
Question

Is forming glycogen from glucose anabolic or catabolic?

Answer

**Anabolic** — small glucose subunits are joined into a larger molecule.

Card 11343.1.1concept
Question

Is the hydrolysis of macromolecules anabolic or catabolic?

Answer

**Catabolic** — a large molecule is broken down into smaller subunits.

Card 11353.1.1concept
Question

Are metabolic reactions catalysed?

Answer

**Yes** — almost all are **enzyme-catalysed**.

Card 11363.1.2concept
Question

What type of molecule is an enzyme?

Answer

A **globular protein** that acts as a **biological catalyst**.

Card 11373.1.2definition
Question

Define a catalyst.

Answer

A substance that **speeds up a reaction** without being used up, so it can be **reused**.

Card 11383.1.2definition
Question

What is the active site?

Answer

The specific **pocket on an enzyme's surface** where the substrate binds; its shape is **complementary** to the substrate.

Card 11393.1.2definition
Question

What is a substrate?

Answer

The **reactant molecule** that an enzyme acts on.

Card 11403.1.2definition
Question

What is an enzyme-substrate complex?

Answer

The temporary structure formed when a **substrate is bound** to an enzyme's **active site**, just before the reaction.

Card 11413.1.2concept
Question

Why is each enzyme specific?

Answer

Its **active site is complementary** in shape to **only one substrate**, so only that substrate can fit and bind.

Card 11423.1.2definition
Question

What does the induced-fit model state?

Answer

As the substrate binds, the **active site changes shape slightly** to **mould around it**, helping the reaction occur.

Card 11433.1.2concept
Question

How does induced fit differ from lock-and-key?

Answer

Lock-and-key has a **rigid** active site; induced fit has a **flexible** active site that **moulds** around the substrate.

Card 11443.1.2concept
Question

Which binding model does the IB accept as current?

Answer

**Induced fit** — the lock-and-key model is older and superseded.

Card 11453.1.2concept
Question

What happens to an enzyme after the reaction?

Answer

It is **unchanged** — the products leave and the enzyme can be **reused**.

Card 11463.1.2concept
Question

Name three features shared by all enzymes.

Answer

They are **globular proteins**, **biological catalysts**, and each has a **specific active site** (also: specific, reusable/unchanged).

Card 11473.1.2concept
Question

If an enzyme forms a product with only one of several molecules, why?

Answer

Only that molecule's shape is **complementary** to the **active site**, so only it can bind and react.

Card 11483.1.3definition
Question

What is activation energy (Eₐ)?

Answer

The **minimum energy** the reactants must have for a reaction to **start**.

Card 11493.1.3concept
Question

On an energy profile, where is the activation energy shown?

Answer

The **height from the reactants level up to the peak** of the curve.

Card 11503.1.3definition
Question

What is an energy profile?

Answer

A graph showing how the **energy of a reacting system changes** as the reaction goes from reactants to products.

Card 11513.1.3concept
Question

How does an enzyme affect the activation energy?

Answer

It **lowers** the activation energy.

Card 11523.1.3concept
Question

Why does lowering the activation energy speed up a reaction?

Answer

A **smaller barrier** means **more reactant particles have enough energy** to react, so the reaction goes faster.

Card 11533.1.3concept
Question

Does an enzyme change the energy of the reactants or products?

Answer

**No** — it lowers only the activation energy; the reactants and products stay at the **same energy levels**.

Card 11543.1.3concept
Question

On a with/without-enzyme graph, which curve is the catalysed one?

Answer

The one with the **lower peak / smaller activation-energy barrier**.

Card 11553.1.3concept
Question

What does the left-hand starting level of an energy profile show?

Answer

The energy of the **reactants** (substrate).

Card 11563.1.3concept
Question

What does the right-hand finishing level of an energy profile show?

Answer

The energy of the **products**.

Card 11573.1.3concept
Question

How do you read the energy released off an energy profile?

Answer

The **drop from the reactants level down to the products level**.

Card 11583.1.3concept
Question

Is an enzyme used up in the reaction it speeds up?

Answer

**No** — an enzyme is a catalyst; it is **not used up** and can be used again.

Card 11593.1.3definition
Question

What is the peak of the curve on an energy profile called?

Answer

The **transition state** — the most unstable, highest-energy point of the reaction.

Card 11603.1.4concept
Question

What three factors affect the rate of an enzyme-controlled reaction?

Answer

**Temperature**, **pH** and **substrate concentration**.

Card 11613.1.4definition
Question

What is the optimum temperature of an enzyme?

Answer

The temperature at which the enzyme works **fastest** — the peak of the rate-versus-temperature graph.

Card 11623.1.4concept
Question

Why does enzyme rate rise as temperature increases (below the optimum)?

Answer

Molecules move **faster**, so the substrate **collides with the active site more often**, increasing the rate.

Card 11633.1.4concept
Question

Why does enzyme rate fall above the optimum temperature?

Answer

The enzyme is **denatured** — the **active site changes shape**, so the substrate no longer fits.

Card 11643.1.4definition
Question

What is denaturation?

Answer

A (usually permanent) change to the **shape of the active site**, caused by high temperature or extreme pH, that stops the enzyme working.

Card 11653.1.4concept
Question

What does a rate-versus-pH graph look like, and why?

Answer

A single **peak** at the **optimum pH**; the rate falls either side because the wrong pH **denatures** the enzyme (distorts the active site).

Card 11663.1.4concept
Question

Why does the rate plateau at high substrate concentration?

Answer

All the **active sites are occupied** (the enzymes are **saturated**), so extra substrate cannot speed up the rate.

Card 11673.1.4definition
Question

What is saturation?

Answer

The point where **every active site is occupied** by substrate, so adding more substrate does not increase the rate.

Card 11683.1.4concept
Question

At the plateau on the substrate graph, what is the limiting factor?

Answer

The **number of enzyme molecules** (active sites) — not the amount of substrate.

Card 11693.1.4concept
Question

How is denaturation different from saturation?

Answer

**Denaturation** changes the active-site **shape** (rate falls, enzyme ruined); **saturation** means all sites are **full** (rate plateaus, enzyme unharmed).

Card 11703.1.4concept
Question

On a temperature graph, how do you score the explanation of the falling part?

Answer

Name **denaturation** AND give the mechanism: the **active site changes shape so the substrate no longer fits**.

Card 11713.1.4concept
Question

When explaining a data graph, what two things must your answer contain?

Answer

The **trend** read off the graph **and** the biological **reason** for it.

Card 11723.1.5definition
Question

What is the independent variable in an enzyme experiment?

Answer

The **one factor you deliberately change** (e.g. temperature, pH, or substrate concentration).

Card 11733.1.5definition
Question

What is the dependent variable in an enzyme experiment?

Answer

What you **measure** to see the effect — usually the **rate of reaction**.

Card 11743.1.5definition
Question

What is a controlled variable?

Answer

A factor **kept constant** in every run so it does not affect the result and the test stays **fair**.

Card 11753.1.5concept
Question

Name the variables that must be controlled when studying an enzyme.

Answer

**Temperature, pH, substrate concentration, amount of enzyme and time** — each one affects the rate on its own.

Card 11763.1.5concept
Question

Why must other variables be controlled?

Answer

So any change in rate is caused **only** by the factor being tested — this makes the comparison **fair (valid)**.

Card 11773.1.5concept
Question

Give two ways to measure the rate of an enzyme reaction.

Answer

E.g. **volume of gas released**, **colour change of an indicator**, time for a substrate to disappear, or **amount of product** formed.

Card 11783.1.5definition
Question

What does it mean to immobilize an enzyme?

Answer

To **attach or trap** it on a **solid support** (e.g. gel beads) so it stays in one place instead of mixing freely with the substrate.

Card 11793.1.5definition
Question

What is a free enzyme?

Answer

An enzyme **dissolved and mixed freely** in solution with its substrate.

Card 11803.1.5concept
Question

Give three advantages of immobilizing an enzyme.

Answer

It can be **reused** (cheaper), the **product stays pure** (no enzyme contamination), and it is **more stable** over a wider range of conditions.

Card 11813.1.5concept
Question

State one application of immobilized enzymes.

Answer

Immobilized **lactase** is used to make **lactose-free milk** (it breaks lactose into glucose and galactose).

Card 11823.1.5concept
Question

Why is amino acids released a valid measure of protease activity?

Answer

Amino acids are the **product**, so the **more released** per unit time, the **more active** the enzyme — it is proportional to activity.

Card 11833.1.5concept
Question

Why can immobilized enzymes be reused but free enzymes usually can't?

Answer

An immobilized enzyme stays **fixed on its support**, so it can be removed and used again; a free enzyme ends up **mixed into the product** and is lost.

Card 11843.1.6definition
Question

What is an intracellular enzyme?

Answer

An enzyme that catalyses a reaction **inside** the cell that produced it (e.g. a **respiration** enzyme).

Card 11853.1.6definition
Question

What is an extracellular enzyme?

Answer

An enzyme that is **secreted** and catalyses a reaction **outside** the cell (e.g. a **digestive** enzyme).

Card 11863.1.6definition
Question

What does it mean to 'secrete' an enzyme?

Answer

To **release** the enzyme out of the cell, through the membrane, into the surroundings.

Card 11873.1.6concept
Question

Give an example of an intracellular enzyme.

Answer

A **respiration** enzyme (or catalase breaking down hydrogen peroxide inside the cell).

Card 11883.1.6concept
Question

Give an example of an extracellular enzyme.

Answer

A **digestive** enzyme such as **amylase, protease or lipase** — or the enzymes a decomposer secretes onto dead matter.

Card 11893.1.6concept
Question

Why does a cell secrete a digestive enzyme instead of keeping it inside?

Answer

Because a large food molecule (e.g. starch, protein) is **too big to cross the cell membrane**; it must be broken into small soluble subunits first.

Card 11903.1.6concept
Question

What does an extracellular digestive enzyme do to a large food molecule?

Answer

It **hydrolyses** it into **small, soluble subunits** (e.g. starch → maltose/glucose) that **can be absorbed**.

Card 11913.1.6concept
Question

How do decomposers (saprotrophs) feed?

Answer

They **secrete extracellular enzymes** onto dead matter, digest it **externally**, then **absorb** the small soluble products.

Card 11923.1.6concept
Question

Does being secreted change how an enzyme works?

Answer

**No** — both intracellular and extracellular enzymes are globular proteins that **lower activation energy**, are **specific** and are **reusable**. Only the location differs.

Card 11933.1.6concept
Question

In a data question, what tells you an enzyme is extracellular?

Answer

Its **activity appears outside the cell** (e.g. in the surrounding liquid / culture medium), acting on a substrate the cell has not absorbed.

Card 11943.1.6definition
Question

What is a metabolic pathway?

Answer

A linked series of enzyme-controlled reactions where the **product of one reaction is the substrate of the next** — run by intracellular enzymes.

Card 11953.1.6concept
Question

What do 'intra-' and 'extra-' mean?

Answer

**Intra** = inside; **extra** = outside — so intracellular acts **inside** the cell and extracellular acts **outside** it.

Card 11963.2.1definition
Question

What does ATP stand for?

Answer

**Adenosine triphosphate** — a molecule with **three** phosphate groups.

Card 11973.2.1concept
Question

Why is ATP called the cell's 'energy currency'?

Answer

It is the **universal, spendable** form of energy — every energy-requiring process in the cell is paid for in ATP.

Card 11983.2.1concept
Question

Where in ATP is the usable energy stored?

Answer

In the **bond to the third phosphate group**.

Card 11993.2.1concept
Question

What is produced when ATP releases its energy?

Answer

**ADP + Pi** (adenosine diphosphate + an inorganic phosphate).

Card 12003.2.1concept
Question

Which conversion releases energy: ATP → ADP + Pi, or ADP + Pi → ATP?

Answer

**ATP → ADP + Pi** releases energy; **ADP + Pi → ATP** stores it.

Card 12013.2.1concept
Question

What supplies the energy to recharge ADP + Pi back into ATP?

Answer

**Cell respiration** — it releases energy from glucose to rebuild ATP.

Card 12023.2.1definition
Question

What is the ATP–ADP cycle?

Answer

The continuous interconversion: ATP is broken to **ADP + Pi** (releasing energy) and rebuilt from **ADP + Pi** by respiration (storing energy).

Card 12033.2.1concept
Question

Name two cell processes powered by converting ATP into ADP.

Answer

Any two of: **active transport, muscle contraction, synthesis of macromolecules, nerve-impulse transmission**.

Card 12043.2.1concept
Question

Give one feature of ATP that suits it to powering cell processes.

Answer

It releases a **small, usable** amount of energy in a **single step** (also: soluble; quickly recharged).

Card 12053.2.1concept
Question

How many phosphate groups do ATP and ADP have?

Answer

**ATP has three**; **ADP has two** (one phosphate is removed to release energy).

Card 12063.2.1concept
Question

Is ATP used up permanently, or reused?

Answer

**Reused** — each molecule is recharged by respiration and recycled thousands of times a day.

Card 12073.2.1concept
Question

Why is being soluble an advantage for ATP?

Answer

Being soluble lets ATP **move freely through the cytoplasm** to wherever in the cell energy is needed.

Card 12083.2.2concept
Question

Why do cells need a constant supply of energy?

Answer

For **active transport, building macromolecules, movement and staying organised** — all powered by ATP.

Card 12093.2.2concept
Question

Why can't cells just use the energy in glucose directly?

Answer

Glucose's energy must first be **released by respiration**; cells then store a usable share of it in **ATP**.

Card 12103.2.2definition
Question

Define cell respiration.

Answer

The **controlled breakdown of glucose** (and other carbon compounds) inside a cell to release energy and regenerate ATP.

Card 12113.2.2definition
Question

What is ATP?

Answer

The cell's **immediate, usable energy supply** — its 'energy currency'.

Card 12123.2.2concept
Question

What is the relationship between ATP and ADP?

Answer

ATP has three phosphates; removing one gives **ADP**. Adding a phosphate back to ADP (using energy from respiration) **regenerates ATP**.

Card 12133.2.2concept
Question

How is ATP regenerated?

Answer

Energy released by **respiring glucose** is used to **add a phosphate to ADP**, remaking ATP.

Card 12143.2.2concept
Question

What happens when a cell USES ATP?

Answer

ATP loses its third phosphate, becoming **ADP**, and **energy is released** to do work.

Card 12153.2.2concept
Question

Why is glucose broken down in small steps, not all at once?

Answer

Releasing all the energy at once would be **wasteful and could damage the cell**; controlled steps let the cell capture energy in ATP.

Card 12163.2.2definition
Question

What is a respiratory substrate?

Answer

The **fuel molecule that is respired** to release energy — most often **glucose**.

Card 12173.2.2concept
Question

Outline how a cell generates ATP.

Answer

Respiration **releases energy from glucose**; that energy **adds a phosphate to ADP**, **regenerating ATP**.

Card 12183.2.2concept
Question

In a yeast experiment, what is the function of the sugar (sucrose) added?

Answer

It is the **respiratory substrate** — the fuel the yeast **respires to release energy**.

Card 12193.2.2concept
Question

Name three processes a cell spends ATP on.

Answer

**Active transport**, **synthesis of macromolecules** (e.g. proteins) and **movement** (e.g. muscle contraction).

Card 12203.2.3concept
Question

What is the key difference between aerobic and anaerobic respiration?

Answer

Aerobic respiration **uses oxygen**; anaerobic respiration takes place **without oxygen**.

Card 12213.2.3definition
Question

Define aerobic respiration.

Answer

Respiration that **uses oxygen** to break glucose down **fully** into carbon dioxide and water, releasing **a lot** of ATP.

Card 12223.2.3definition
Question

Define anaerobic respiration.

Answer

Respiration that happens **without oxygen**; glucose is broken down only **partly**, releasing only **a little** ATP.

Card 12233.2.3concept
Question

Where in the cell does aerobic respiration take place?

Answer

In the **mitochondria**.

Card 12243.2.3concept
Question

Where in the cell does anaerobic respiration take place?

Answer

In the **cytoplasm**.

Card 12253.2.3concept
Question

What are the products of aerobic respiration?

Answer

**Carbon dioxide + water** (in all organisms).

Card 12263.2.3concept
Question

What is the product of anaerobic respiration in animals (and human muscle)?

Answer

**Lactate**.

Card 12273.2.3concept
Question

What are the products of anaerobic respiration in yeast?

Answer

**Ethanol + carbon dioxide** — the basis of bioethanol, brewing and bread.

Card 12283.2.3concept
Question

Which type of respiration releases more ATP per glucose, and why?

Answer

**Aerobic** — because oxygen lets glucose be **fully** broken down, releasing most of its energy.

Card 12293.2.3concept
Question

During intense exercise, what do human muscle cells do when oxygen runs low?

Answer

They switch to **anaerobic respiration**, producing **lactate** in the cytoplasm.

Card 12303.2.3concept
Question

How is bioethanol fuel produced?

Answer

By **yeast** respiring **anaerobically**: glucose → **ethanol + carbon dioxide**.

Card 12313.2.3concept
Question

What does the prefix 'an-' in 'anaerobic' mean?

Answer

'**Without**' — anaerobic respiration happens **without oxygen** (air).

Card 12323.2.3concept
Question

Why does anaerobic respiration release only a little ATP?

Answer

Glucose is only **partly** broken down, so **most of its energy stays locked** inside the product (lactate or ethanol).

Card 12333.2.4definition
Question

What does 'respiration rate' mean?

Answer

How **fast** an organism respires — usually the **oxygen used** (or **CO₂ produced**) **per unit time**.

Card 12343.2.4definition
Question

What is a respirometer?

Answer

Apparatus that measures respiration rate by detecting the **change in gas volume** (usually the **oxygen used up**) as organisms respire.

Card 12353.2.4concept
Question

In a respirometer, why does the coloured liquid move towards the seeds?

Answer

The seeds **use up oxygen**, lowering the gas volume, so the liquid is **drawn in**.

Card 12363.2.4concept
Question

Why is potassium hydroxide (KOH) added to a respirometer?

Answer

To **absorb the carbon dioxide** released, so the **only** gas change measured is the **oxygen used up**.

Card 12373.2.4concept
Question

Why include a tube of dead (boiled) seeds in a respirometer experiment?

Answer

As a **control** — dead seeds don't respire, so the liquid shouldn't move; this proves any movement is caused by **respiration**, not temperature or pressure.

Card 12383.2.4concept
Question

Name four quantities that can be used to measure respiration rate.

Answer

**Oxygen used**, **carbon dioxide produced**, **temperature rise**, and **mass lost**.

Card 12393.2.4concept
Question

Which gas does aerobic respiration use up, and which does it release?

Answer

It **uses up oxygen** and **releases carbon dioxide**.

Card 12403.2.4concept
Question

How does respiration cause a measurable temperature rise?

Answer

Respiration **releases some energy as heat**, so in an insulated flask the temperature climbs — faster respiration gives a faster rise.

Card 12413.2.4concept
Question

Why does respiring tissue lose mass over time?

Answer

Carbon leaves the organism as **carbon dioxide gas**, so its **dry mass falls**.

Card 12423.2.4concept
Question

How would an inhibitor such as cyanide affect a respirometer reading?

Answer

It **slows or stops** respiration, so **less oxygen is used** and the coloured liquid moves **less** (or not at all).

Card 12433.2.4concept
Question

Why do we measure respiration indirectly?

Answer

You can't watch a cell respire, but you **can** measure the gases, heat or mass it changes — so measuring one of these gives the rate.

Card 12443.2.4concept
Question

Why must a respirometer experiment be a fair test?

Answer

So any change in the liquid is caused by **respiration alone** — the dead-seed control rules out temperature and pressure effects.

Card 12453.3.1concept
Question

In terms of energy, what does photosynthesis do?

Answer

It **converts light energy into chemical energy** stored in glucose.

Card 12463.3.1definition
Question

Define photosynthesis.

Answer

The process that **converts light energy into chemical energy** (stored in glucose), using carbon dioxide and water as raw materials.

Card 12473.3.1concept
Question

What are the raw materials of photosynthesis?

Answer

**Carbon dioxide** and **water**.

Card 12483.3.1concept
Question

What are the products of photosynthesis?

Answer

**Glucose** and **oxygen**.

Card 12493.3.1concept
Question

Write the word equation for photosynthesis.

Answer

**carbon dioxide + water →(light, chlorophyll)→ glucose + oxygen**.

Card 12503.3.1concept
Question

What is the role of chlorophyll?

Answer

It is the **green pigment** that **absorbs the light energy** used to drive photosynthesis.

Card 12513.3.1concept
Question

Where is the chemical energy from photosynthesis stored?

Answer

In the **bonds of glucose**.

Card 12523.3.1concept
Question

Is light a raw material of photosynthesis?

Answer

**No** — light is the **energy input**. It is absorbed and converted, but not built into the glucose.

Card 12533.3.1concept
Question

Where does the oxygen released in photosynthesis come from?

Answer

From the **water** that is split during the process.

Card 12543.3.1concept
Question

Why does a water plant bubble in the light but not the dark?

Answer

Photosynthesis needs **light energy**, so it only occurs in the light, releasing **oxygen** as bubbles.

Card 12553.3.1definition
Question

Define chemical energy.

Answer

Energy **stored in the bonds of a molecule** (such as glucose); it can be released later by respiration.

Card 12563.3.1concept
Question

Which gas is released as a waste product of photosynthesis?

Answer

**Oxygen (O₂)**.

Card 12573.3.2concept
Question

Why do leaves look green?

Answer

**Chlorophyll reflects green light** (while absorbing blue and red). The reflected green is what we see.

Card 12583.3.2concept
Question

Which colours of light does chlorophyll absorb most strongly?

Answer

**Blue** (~450 nm) and **red** (~660 nm).

Card 12593.3.2concept
Question

Which colour does chlorophyll absorb least?

Answer

**Green** (~550 nm) — it is mostly reflected.

Card 12603.3.2definition
Question

Define a pigment.

Answer

A **coloured molecule** that absorbs some wavelengths of light and reflects others; the colour you see is the light it does **not** absorb.

Card 12613.3.2definition
Question

What is an absorption spectrum?

Answer

A graph of **how much light a pigment absorbs** at each wavelength (chlorophyll peaks in blue and red, dips in green).

Card 12623.3.2definition
Question

What is an action spectrum?

Answer

A graph of the **rate of photosynthesis** at each wavelength of light.

Card 12633.3.2concept
Question

Why do the absorption and action spectra have the same shape?

Answer

Because **only absorbed light can power photosynthesis** — the wavelengths absorbed are the wavelengths that drive it.

Card 12643.3.2definition
Question

What are accessory pigments?

Answer

Extra pigments (e.g. **carotenoids**) that absorb wavelengths **chlorophyll misses** and pass the energy on to chlorophyll.

Card 12653.3.2concept
Question

Why are accessory pigments useful?

Answer

They **widen the range of wavelengths** captured, so the plant loses less of the available light energy.

Card 12663.3.2concept
Question

The colour you see from a pigment is...

Answer

The light the pigment **does NOT absorb** (the reflected light), not the light it absorbs.

Card 12673.3.2concept
Question

What does chromatography of a leaf extract show?

Answer

That a leaf contains **more than one pigment** — they separate into different **colours** (different Rf values).

Card 12683.3.2concept
Question

Roughly what wavelength range is visible light?

Answer

About **400 nm (blue/violet)** to **700 nm (red)**, with green near **550 nm**.

Card 12693.3.3concept
Question

What are the two PRODUCTS of photosynthesis?

Answer

**Glucose** (chemical energy) and **oxygen** (a released waste gas).

Card 12703.3.3concept
Question

Which gas does photosynthesis RELEASE?

Answer

**Oxygen (O₂)** — a waste product, given off from the splitting of water.

Card 12713.3.3concept
Question

Which gas does photosynthesis ABSORB?

Answer

**Carbon dioxide (CO₂)** — a raw material whose carbon is built into glucose.

Card 12723.3.3concept
Question

Where does the oxygen given off in photosynthesis come from?

Answer

From the **splitting of water** during the reaction.

Card 12733.3.3concept
Question

Why does an illuminated aquatic plant give off bubbles?

Answer

The bubbles are **oxygen**, a product of photosynthesis released in the light.

Card 12743.3.3concept
Question

Name three ways to measure the rate of photosynthesis.

Answer

**Oxygen produced** (bubble count / gas volume), **carbon dioxide taken up** (CO₂ indicator), and **pH** of the water.

Card 12753.3.3definition
Question

What does a CO₂ (hydrogencarbonate) indicator show?

Answer

It changes **colour** with the dissolved carbon dioxide level — as the plant removes CO₂, the colour shifts.

Card 12763.3.3concept
Question

Why does faster photosynthesis make the water's pH RISE?

Answer

It **removes carbon dioxide**; dissolved CO₂ is acidic, so less CO₂ means **less acid** and a **higher pH**.

Card 12773.3.3concept
Question

How does counting bubbles measure the rate?

Answer

**More bubbles per minute** means **more oxygen** is being released, so photosynthesis is **faster**.

Card 12783.3.3definition
Question

Define the rate of photosynthesis.

Answer

How **fast** photosynthesis is happening — e.g. how much **oxygen is produced** (or CO₂ used) each minute.

Card 12793.3.3concept
Question

Does removing CO₂ from water make it more or less acidic?

Answer

**Less** acidic — dissolved CO₂ is acidic, so taking it out raises the pH.

Card 12803.3.3concept
Question

How are the gas changes of photosynthesis different from respiration?

Answer

Photosynthesis **releases O₂ and absorbs CO₂**; respiration does the opposite (uses O₂, releases CO₂).

Card 12813.3.4definition
Question

What is a limiting factor?

Answer

The factor in **shortest supply** that holds back the rate of a process. Only raising it can increase the rate.

Card 12823.3.4concept
Question

Name the three limiting factors of photosynthesis.

Answer

**Light intensity**, **carbon dioxide concentration** and **temperature**.

Card 12833.3.4concept
Question

Why does only the limiting factor change the rate?

Answer

Because it is the one in shortest supply; the others are already plentiful, so adding more of them does nothing.

Card 12843.3.4concept
Question

On a rate-vs-light graph, what is limiting on the rising part?

Answer

**Light intensity** — while the curve climbs, increasing light increases the rate.

Card 12853.3.4concept
Question

On a rate-vs-light graph, what is limiting on the plateau?

Answer

**CO₂ concentration** (or **temperature**) — light is no longer limiting once the rate goes flat.

Card 12863.3.4concept
Question

Why does a rate-vs-light curve plateau?

Answer

Because **light is no longer the limiting factor**; another factor (CO₂ or temperature) now limits the rate.

Card 12873.3.4concept
Question

On a graph with two CO₂ levels, what does the higher-CO₂ curve do?

Answer

It **plateaus higher up** — more CO₂ lets light keep raising the rate for longer.

Card 12883.3.4concept
Question

How does increasing CO₂ affect the rate while CO₂ is limiting?

Answer

It **increases** the rate, because CO₂ is a raw material that was in short supply.

Card 12893.3.4concept
Question

What happens to the rate if temperature rises too far above the optimum?

Answer

The rate **falls** (and can drop to zero) because the **enzymes denature**.

Card 12903.3.4concept
Question

Why does very high temperature lower the rate of photosynthesis?

Answer

Photosynthesis uses **enzymes**, and high temperature **denatures** them, destroying their shape so they stop working.

Card 12913.3.4concept
Question

How do you spot the limiting factor from a curve's shape?

Answer

If the curve is **sloping**, the factor on the axis is limiting; if it is **flat**, something else is limiting.

Card 12923.3.4definition
Question

Define the 'rate of photosynthesis'.

Answer

How fast photosynthesis happens — e.g. the volume of oxygen released or CO₂ taken up per minute.

Card 12933.3.5definition
Question

What is carbon fixation?

Answer

Taking **carbon dioxide (CO₂)** from the air and building its carbon into an **organic molecule** — in plants this happens during **photosynthesis**.

Card 12943.3.5concept
Question

Where does all the carbon in a plant originally come from?

Answer

From **carbon dioxide (CO₂)** in the **atmosphere**, fixed during photosynthesis.

Card 12953.3.5concept
Question

Which molecule does a plant build FIRST from fixed carbon?

Answer

**Glucose** — the hub molecule from which everything else is built.

Card 12963.3.5concept
Question

Why is glucose called a 'hub' molecule?

Answer

Because the plant **converts** it into all its other molecules: starch, cellulose, amino acids and lipids.

Card 12973.3.5concept
Question

List the main fates of the glucose a plant makes.

Answer

**Respiration** (energy), **starch** (storage), **cellulose** (cell walls), **amino acids / proteins**, and **lipids (oils)**.

Card 12983.3.5concept
Question

How does a plant turn glucose into an oil?

Answer

Glucose is converted into **glycerol** and **fatty acids**, which are then **joined** (by condensation) to form a **lipid (oil)**.

Card 12993.3.5definition
Question

What are the building blocks of a lipid (oil)?

Answer

**Glycerol** and **fatty acids**.

Card 13003.3.5concept
Question

Outline how a plant builds oils from atmospheric carbon.

Answer

CO₂ is **fixed** in photosynthesis → **glucose** is made → glucose → **glycerol + fatty acids** → these **join** into a **lipid (oil)**, stored in seeds.

Card 13013.3.5concept
Question

Which food molecule stores the most energy per gram?

Answer

**Lipids (oils)** — this is why seeds often store energy as oil rather than starch.

Card 13023.3.5concept
Question

Where are plant oils most often stored?

Answer

In **seeds**, where their packed energy fuels the growth of the next plant.

Card 13033.3.5concept
Question

Which extra element does a plant need to make proteins (but not oils)?

Answer

**Nitrogen (N)** — taken up from the soil, as well as the carbon from CO₂.

Card 13043.3.5concept
Question

Is starch or oil made directly from glucose by joining glucose units?

Answer

**Starch** — it is built by joining glucose molecules; oils need glucose to be converted to glycerol and fatty acids first.

Card 13053.3.6concept
Question

Which leaf layer carries out most of the photosynthesis?

Answer

The **palisade mesophyll** — tall cells packed with chloroplasts near the top of the leaf.

Card 13063.3.6concept
Question

How do you identify the palisade mesophyll on a leaf cross-section?

Answer

Look for a layer of **tall, column-shaped cells packed with chloroplasts, just below the upper surface**.

Card 13073.3.6definition
Question

What is the palisade mesophyll?

Answer

A layer of **tall, chloroplast-packed cells** just under the upper surface that does **most of the leaf's photosynthesis**.

Card 13083.3.6definition
Question

What is the spongy mesophyll, and how does it help photosynthesis?

Answer

A layer of **loosely-packed cells with large air spaces**; the spaces let **CO₂ diffuse** to every photosynthesising cell.

Card 13093.3.6concept
Question

Why are the waxy cuticle and upper epidermis transparent?

Answer

They have **no chloroplasts**, so they are clear and let **light pass through** to the palisade cells below.

Card 13103.3.6concept
Question

Why is a leaf broad and flat?

Answer

To give a **large surface area** for absorbing light (and for gas exchange).

Card 13113.3.6concept
Question

Why is a leaf thin?

Answer

So light and **CO₂ only travel a short distance** to reach the chloroplasts.

Card 13123.3.6concept
Question

Where is the palisade mesophyll positioned, and why there?

Answer

**Near the top**, just below the upper epidermis — where the **light is brightest**, so it absorbs the most light.

Card 13133.3.6concept
Question

What do the veins (xylem and phloem) do for photosynthesis?

Answer

**Xylem** brings **water** (a raw material); **phloem** carries away the **sugars** made.

Card 13143.3.6concept
Question

Which three raw materials/conditions does a leaf supply for photosynthesis?

Answer

**Light** (captured by the broad, transparent-topped leaf), **CO₂** (in through stomata) and **water** (up the xylem).

Card 13153.3.6concept
Question

How can you tell the palisade mesophyll from the spongy mesophyll?

Answer

**Palisade** = tall, packed cells near the **top**; **spongy** = loose, rounded cells with **air spaces lower down**.

Card 13163.3.6concept
Question

What lets CO₂ enter the leaf to reach the chloroplasts?

Answer

The **stomata** (pores controlled by **guard cells**), mainly on the lower surface.

Card 13173.4.1definition
Question

What is a ligand?

Answer

A **signalling molecule that binds to a receptor** to deliver a message.

Card 13183.4.1definition
Question

What is a receptor?

Answer

A **protein** with a **binding site** complementary to a specific ligand; binding the ligand triggers a response.

Card 13193.4.1concept
Question

What makes a receptor specific to one ligand?

Answer

Its binding site is **complementary in shape AND chemistry** to that ligand (lock-and-key), so only the matching ligand fits.

Card 13203.4.1definition
Question

What is a target cell?

Answer

A cell that **carries the matching receptor** for a signal — so it is the cell that actually responds.

Card 13213.4.1concept
Question

Why do only some cells respond to a signal that reaches them all?

Answer

Only cells with the **matching receptor** can **bind** the ligand and respond; cells without it cannot.

Card 13223.4.1concept
Question

Why can the same signal cause different responses in different cells?

Answer

The response depends on **each cell's own receptor and machinery**, not on the signal itself.

Card 13233.4.1concept
Question

Is ligand–receptor binding permanent?

Answer

No — it is **reversible**, so the response is **temporary** and can be switched off.

Card 13243.4.2concept
Question

Name the four modes of chemical signalling, by distance.

Answer

**Endocrine** (hormone via blood, long range), **paracrine** (local/nearby cells), **autocrine** (a cell signals itself) and **neurotransmitter** (across a synapse).

Card 13253.4.2definition
Question

What is endocrine signalling?

Answer

A **hormone** is released into the **blood** and carried to **distant** target cells — the longest-range mode.

Card 13263.4.2concept
Question

Why does a peptide hormone bind a SURFACE receptor?

Answer

It is **hydrophilic (water-soluble)**, so it **cannot cross** the phospholipid membrane — its receptor must be on the cell surface, and the signal is then **transduced** inside.

Card 13273.4.2concept
Question

Why can a steroid hormone bind an INTRACELLULAR receptor?

Answer

It is **lipid-soluble**, so it **diffuses straight through** the membrane and binds a receptor **inside** the cell.

Card 13283.4.2concept
Question

How does a steroid hormone change the cell's behaviour?

Answer

The **hormone–receptor complex acts in the nucleus**, switching **genes on/off** so different proteins are made.

Card 13293.4.2concept
Question

Peptide vs steroid — which is faster and why?

Answer

**Peptide** is faster (seconds–minutes) because it activates existing machinery; **steroid** is slower (hours) because new proteins must be made — but it lasts longer.

Card 13303.4.2concept
Question

Is adrenaline a peptide or a steroid in how it acts?

Answer

It acts like a **peptide** — it is **hydrophilic**, so it binds a **surface receptor** and works by **signal transduction** (not via intracellular gene action).

Card 13313.4.3concept
Question

Why can't a hydrophilic ligand cross the cell membrane?

Answer

It is repelled by the **hydrophobic core** of the phospholipid bilayer, so it can't pass through — it must bind a **surface** receptor.

Card 13323.4.3concept
Question

What kind of receptor does a hydrophilic ligand bind?

Answer

A **transmembrane receptor** (e.g. a **G-protein-coupled receptor, GPCR**) — a protein spanning the membrane with a binding site outside and an end inside.

Card 13333.4.3definition
Question

What is signal transduction?

Answer

**Relaying** a signal received at the cell surface into a **response inside** the cell, without the ligand entering.

Card 13343.4.3definition
Question

What is a second messenger? Give an example.

Answer

A small molecule made **inside** the cell that carries the signal onward and amplifies it — e.g. **cyclic AMP (cAMP)**.

Card 13353.4.3concept
Question

How does the pathway amplify the signal?

Answer

**One** ligand → **many** cAMP molecules → a **cascade** where each enzyme activates many more → a **large** response.

Card 13363.4.3concept
Question

What is the final 'response' in this pathway?

Answer

An **enzyme is switched on**, or a **gene is switched on**, inside the cell.

Card 13373.4.3concept
Question

Ligand vs second messenger — what's the difference?

Answer

The **ligand** (first messenger) stays **outside** and binds the receptor; the **second messenger** (cAMP) is made **inside** and relays the signal onward.

Card 13383.4.4concept
Question

Which signals use intracellular receptors?

Answer

**Lipid-soluble** signals — **steroid hormones** and **thyroxine** — because they can diffuse through the plasma membrane.

Card 13393.4.4definition
Question

Where are intracellular receptors located?

Answer

**Inside** the cell — in the **cytoplasm or nucleus** (not on the surface).

Card 13403.4.4concept
Question

How does a lipid-soluble hormone get inside the cell?

Answer

It **diffuses straight through the plasma membrane** (the membrane is lipid, and like dissolves like).

Card 13413.4.4concept
Question

What does the hormone-receptor complex act as?

Answer

A **transcription factor** — it **binds DNA** and **switches specific genes on or off**.

Card 13423.4.4concept
Question

What is the final effect of intracellular signalling?

Answer

It **changes which proteins the cell makes** (gene expression) — a **slower but longer-lasting** effect.

Card 13433.4.4concept
Question

Intracellular vs surface receptors — speed and duration?

Answer

Intracellular = **slow to start, long-lasting** (changes gene expression); surface + second messenger = **fast, short-lived**.

Card 13443.4.4concept
Question

Does a steroid hormone use a second messenger?

Answer

**No** — second messengers belong to the **surface-receptor** route; a steroid acts directly on the cell's DNA.

Card 13453.4.5definition
Question

What is a neurotransmitter, and where does it act?

Answer

A **chemical signal** released at a **synapse**; it diffuses across the cleft and **binds receptors** on the postsynaptic membrane.

Card 13463.4.5concept
Question

What actually triggers the response at a synapse?

Answer

The neurotransmitter **binding its receptor** on the postsynaptic membrane — a neurotransmitter in the cleft does nothing until it binds.

Card 13473.4.5concept
Question

What makes a response excitatory?

Answer

The receptor opens channels that let **positive ions (Na⁺) in** → the membrane **depolarises** → the neuron is **more likely to fire**.

Card 13483.4.5concept
Question

What makes a response inhibitory?

Answer

The receptor opens channels that let **Cl⁻ in (or K⁺ out)** → the membrane **hyperpolarises** → the neuron is **less likely to fire**.

Card 13493.4.5concept
Question

How can one neurotransmitter excite one cell and inhibit another?

Answer

The **receptor decides**, not the neurotransmitter — different receptors open different ion channels, so the same signal gives opposite effects.

Card 13503.4.5concept
Question

How is a synaptic signal switched off, and why?

Answer

The neurotransmitter is **removed (re-uptake)** or **broken down by an enzyme**, so the receptors empty and the signal stops — keeping it **brief and controlled**.

Card 13513.4.5concept
Question

How does negative feedback control chemical signalling?

Answer

A **rising response inhibits further signalling**, so the response stops growing and the system **returns to its set point**.

Card 13523.5.1definition
Question

What is a neuron?

Answer

A **nerve cell** — the cell specialised to carry **electrical impulses** around the body.

Card 13533.5.1concept
Question

In what order does a nerve impulse travel through a neuron?

Answer

**Dendrites → cell body → axon → axon terminals** (always one direction).

Card 13543.5.1definition
Question

What is the job of the dendrites?

Answer

They **receive incoming signals** and carry them towards the cell body.

Card 13553.5.1definition
Question

What does the axon do?

Answer

It carries the **nerve impulse away from the cell body** towards the axon terminals.

Card 13563.5.1concept
Question

What does the myelin sheath do?

Answer

It is a **fatty layer** that **insulates the axon** and **speeds up** the nerve impulse.

Card 13573.5.1definition
Question

What are the nodes of Ranvier?

Answer

The **gaps between segments of the myelin sheath**, where the impulse 'jumps' so it travels faster.

Card 13583.5.1concept
Question

What is the function of a sensory neuron?

Answer

It carries impulses **from receptors TOWARDS the CNS** (it brings information in from the senses).

Card 13593.5.1concept
Question

What is the function of a motor neuron?

Answer

It carries impulses **from the CNS TO effectors** (muscles and glands), producing a response.

Card 13603.5.1concept
Question

What is the simplest way to tell sensory and motor neurons apart?

Answer

By **direction**: sensory carry impulses **TO** the CNS, motor carry impulses **FROM** the CNS.

Card 13613.5.1definition
Question

What is an effector?

Answer

A **muscle or gland** that carries out a response (by contracting or by releasing a secretion).

Card 13623.5.1concept
Question

What are the two components of the central nervous system (CNS)?

Answer

The **brain** and the **spinal cord**.

Card 13633.5.1definition
Question

What is the peripheral nervous system (PNS)?

Answer

**All the nerves outside the brain and spinal cord**, connecting the CNS to the rest of the body.

Card 13643.5.2definition
Question

What is the resting potential of a neuron?

Answer

The voltage across the membrane of a neuron that is **not** conducting an impulse — the inside is about **−70 mV** (negative) relative to the outside.

Card 13653.5.2concept
Question

Roughly what value is the resting potential?

Answer

About **−70 mV** (the inside is negative relative to the outside).

Card 13663.5.2concept
Question

Is the inside of a resting neuron positive or negative?

Answer

**Negative** — about −70 mV compared with the outside.

Card 13673.5.2definition
Question

What is the sodium-potassium pump?

Answer

A membrane protein that uses **ATP** to move **Na⁺ out** of the neuron and **K⁺ in**, against their concentration gradients.

Card 13683.5.2concept
Question

How many of each ion does the pump move per cycle?

Answer

**3 sodium ions (Na⁺) out** and **2 potassium ions (K⁺) in**.

Card 13693.5.2concept
Question

Why does the inside of the neuron become negative?

Answer

The pump moves **3 positive ions out for every 2 in**, so more positive charge leaves than enters; **K⁺ leaking back out** makes it more negative still.

Card 13703.5.2concept
Question

Why does the sodium-potassium pump need ATP?

Answer

It moves ions **against their concentration gradients** — this is **active transport**, which requires energy from ATP.

Card 13713.5.2concept
Question

Where does the ATP for the pump come from?

Answer

From **cell respiration** (in the neuron's mitochondria).

Card 13723.5.2definition
Question

What is active transport?

Answer

Movement of a substance across a membrane **against** its concentration gradient, requiring energy from **ATP**.

Card 13733.5.2concept
Question

What happens to the resting potential if a neuron cannot respire?

Answer

It is **lost** — no respiration → no ATP → the pump stops → the ion gradients run down.

Card 13743.5.2concept
Question

What does potassium do after the pump builds it up inside?

Answer

Some **K⁺ leaks back out** down its concentration gradient, making the inside **more negative**.

Card 13753.5.2concept
Question

In a resting axon, where is sodium more concentrated?

Answer

**Outside** the axon (the pump keeps Na⁺ high outside and low inside).

Card 13763.5.2concept
Question

In a resting axon, where is potassium more concentrated?

Answer

**Inside** the axon (the pump keeps K⁺ high inside and low outside).

Card 13773.5.3concept
Question

What is the resting potential of a neuron?

Answer

About **−70 mV**, with the inside of the axon **negative** compared with the outside.

Card 13783.5.3definition
Question

Define an action potential.

Answer

A rapid, temporary **reversal of the membrane potential** (from about −70 mV up to +40 mV and back) that travels along the axon as a nerve impulse.

Card 13793.5.3concept
Question

What happens during depolarisation?

Answer

Voltage-gated **Na⁺ channels open** and **Na⁺ ions rush IN**, so the inside becomes positive and the membrane potential rises to about +40 mV.

Card 13803.5.3concept
Question

What happens during repolarisation?

Answer

**K⁺ channels open** and **K⁺ ions move OUT**, so the inside becomes negative again and the membrane potential falls back towards −70 mV.

Card 13813.5.3concept
Question

Which ion drives depolarisation, and in which direction?

Answer

**Sodium (Na⁺)**, moving **INTO** the axon.

Card 13823.5.3concept
Question

Which ion drives repolarisation, and in which direction?

Answer

**Potassium (K⁺)**, moving **OUT of** the axon.

Card 13833.5.3definition
Question

What is the threshold?

Answer

The membrane potential a stimulus must reach to trigger an action potential. Below it nothing fires; at or above it a full action potential fires.

Card 13843.5.3concept
Question

What does the all-or-none principle mean?

Answer

An action potential fires **fully or not at all** — every one is the **same size**, regardless of how strong the stimulus is.

Card 13853.5.3concept
Question

How does a stronger stimulus affect the response of a neuron?

Answer

It makes the neuron fire action potentials **more frequently** — it does **not** make each action potential bigger.

Card 13863.5.3concept
Question

How does an action potential travel along an axon?

Answer

Each region **depolarises the next region**, regenerating the impulse so it stays the **same size** all the way along.

Card 13873.5.3concept
Question

Why does a nerve impulse travel in only one direction?

Answer

The region just behind the impulse is briefly **recovering (refractory)** and cannot fire again straight away, so the impulse moves forward only.

Card 13883.5.3concept
Question

On an action-potential trace, what does the rising part show?

Answer

**Depolarisation** — Na⁺ ions entering the axon (membrane potential rising towards +40 mV).

Card 13893.5.3concept
Question

On an action-potential trace, what does the falling part show?

Answer

**Repolarisation** — K⁺ ions leaving the axon (membrane potential falling towards −70 mV).

Card 13903.5.3concept
Question

What restores the resting potential after an action potential?

Answer

The **Na⁺/K⁺ pump**, which pumps Na⁺ out and K⁺ in to re-establish the resting ion balance.

Card 13913.5.4concept
Question

What three factors mainly determine the speed of a nerve impulse?

Answer

**Myelination**, **saltatory conduction** (nodes of Ranvier), and **axon diameter**.

Card 13923.5.4definition
Question

What is the myelin sheath?

Answer

A **fatty insulating layer** that wraps around the axon of some neurons.

Card 13933.5.4definition
Question

What is a node of Ranvier?

Answer

A **gap in the myelin sheath** where the axon membrane is exposed and the action potential is regenerated.

Card 13943.5.4definition
Question

What is saltatory conduction?

Answer

Conduction in which the impulse **'jumps' from one node of Ranvier to the next**, instead of moving continuously along the membrane.

Card 13953.5.4concept
Question

Why does myelination speed up conduction?

Answer

The myelin **insulates** the axon, so the impulse only forms at the nodes and **jumps** between them — much faster than continuous conduction.

Card 13963.5.4concept
Question

Where does depolarization occur on a myelinated axon?

Answer

**Only at the nodes of Ranvier** — the gaps in the myelin; the sheath insulates the rest of the axon.

Card 13973.5.4concept
Question

How does axon diameter affect conduction speed?

Answer

A **wider** axon conducts **faster** because it has **less internal resistance** to the flow of charge.

Card 13983.5.4concept
Question

Which conducts faster: a myelinated or an unmyelinated axon?

Answer

A **myelinated** axon — it uses fast saltatory conduction; an unmyelinated axon conducts slowly and continuously.

Card 13993.5.4concept
Question

Of four axons, which conducts a nerve impulse most slowly?

Answer

The **thin, unmyelinated** one — no saltatory conduction and high internal resistance.

Card 14003.5.4concept
Question

Of four axons, which conducts a nerve impulse fastest?

Answer

The **wide, myelinated** one — saltatory conduction plus low internal resistance.

Card 14013.5.4concept
Question

What does the word 'saltatory' mean, and why is it apt?

Answer

It comes from the Latin for **'to jump'** — the impulse leaps from node to node.

Card 14023.5.4concept
Question

Why is a myelinated axon described as 'insulated'?

Answer

The fatty myelin sheath acts like the plastic coating on a wire, **insulating** the axon so the impulse only forms at the bare nodes.

Card 14033.5.5definition
Question

What is a synapse?

Answer

The **junction (gap)** between two neurons, where a signal passes from one to the next using a **chemical** (neurotransmitter).

Card 14043.5.5definition
Question

What is the synaptic cleft?

Answer

The **narrow gap** between the two neurons that the neurotransmitter **diffuses across**.

Card 14053.5.5definition
Question

What is a neurotransmitter?

Answer

The **chemical messenger** released into the synaptic cleft that carries the signal across the gap.

Card 14063.5.5concept
Question

What is stored in synaptic vesicles?

Answer

**Neurotransmitter** — ready to be released from the presynaptic neuron.

Card 14073.5.5concept
Question

Why is the signal carried by a chemical at a synapse, not electricity?

Answer

The two neurons are separated by the cleft; electricity cannot cross the gap, so a **neurotransmitter** bridges it.

Card 14083.5.5concept
Question

What triggers vesicles to fuse with the presynaptic membrane?

Answer

**Calcium ions (Ca²⁺) entering** the presynaptic neuron when the impulse arrives.

Card 14093.5.5concept
Question

How is neurotransmitter released into the cleft?

Answer

By **exocytosis** — vesicles fuse with the presynaptic membrane and empty their contents into the cleft.

Card 14103.5.5concept
Question

Describe the release of neurotransmitter (3 steps).

Answer

**Ca²⁺ enters** → **vesicles fuse** with the presynaptic membrane → neurotransmitter **released by exocytosis** into the cleft.

Card 14113.5.5concept
Question

What happens when neurotransmitter binds the postsynaptic receptors?

Answer

**Ion channels open**, **Na⁺ enters**, and the postsynaptic membrane **depolarises** (an EPSP).

Card 14123.5.5definition
Question

What is an excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP)?

Answer

A **depolarisation** of the postsynaptic membrane caused by neurotransmitter binding — it makes a new impulse **more likely**.

Card 14133.5.5concept
Question

Distinguish the presynaptic from the postsynaptic membrane.

Answer

**Presynaptic** = holds vesicles and **releases** neurotransmitter; **postsynaptic** = carries receptors and **receives** it.

Card 14143.5.5concept
Question

Why is it an advantage that the synaptic cleft is narrow?

Answer

It gives a **short diffusion distance**, so the neurotransmitter crosses **quickly** and transmission is **fast**.

Card 14153.5.5concept
Question

Which ion enters the POSTsynaptic neuron to depolarise it?

Answer

**Sodium (Na⁺)** — it enters through channels opened by the neurotransmitter.

Card 14163.5.6definition
Question

What is a reflex?

Answer

A **fast, automatic response** to a stimulus that needs **no conscious thought**.

Card 14173.5.6definition
Question

What is a reflex arc?

Answer

The fixed nerve pathway a reflex follows: **stimulus -> receptor -> sensory neuron -> relay neuron (CNS) -> motor neuron -> effector -> response**.

Card 14183.5.6concept
Question

Why are reflexes so fast?

Answer

The signal takes a **short cut through the spinal cord** instead of travelling to the brain and back.

Card 14193.5.6concept
Question

What does a receptor do in a reflex arc?

Answer

It **detects the stimulus** and starts a nerve impulse (e.g. a sensory nerve ending in the skin).

Card 14203.5.6definition
Question

What is the effector in a reflex arc?

Answer

A **muscle or gland** that carries out the response (e.g. a muscle that contracts).

Card 14213.5.6concept
Question

In a pain reflex, what is the receptor?

Answer

A **sensory nerve ending** in the skin.

Card 14223.5.6concept
Question

In a pain reflex, what is the effector?

Answer

A **muscle** that contracts to pull the body part away.

Card 14233.5.6concept
Question

Where are the synapses in a reflex arc located?

Answer

**Inside the CNS** — in the grey matter of the **spinal cord**.

Card 14243.5.6concept
Question

Which neuron carries the impulse INTO the CNS?

Answer

The **sensory neuron** (S = sending in).

Card 14253.5.6concept
Question

Which neuron carries the impulse OUT of the CNS?

Answer

The **motor neuron** (M = moving out).

Card 14263.5.6concept
Question

What does a mechanoreceptor detect?

Answer

**Touch, pressure, texture, stretch or vibration.**

Card 14273.5.6concept
Question

What does a thermoreceptor detect?

Answer

**Temperature** (heat and cold).

Card 14283.5.6concept
Question

What does a chemoreceptor detect?

Answer

**Chemicals** — this is how **taste and smell** work.

Card 14293.5.6concept
Question

What does a photoreceptor detect?

Answer

**Light** (e.g. the brightness of light entering the eye).

Card 14303.5.6concept
Question

In the pupil reflex, what is the effector and what does it do?

Answer

The **iris muscles** — they **contract to make the pupil smaller**, reducing the light entering the eye.

Card 14313.6.1concept
Question

What signal does the nervous system use?

Answer

Fast **electrical impulses** carried along **neurons**.

Card 14323.6.1concept
Question

What signal does the endocrine system use?

Answer

Slower **chemical hormones** carried in the **blood**.

Card 14333.6.1definition
Question

Define a hormone.

Answer

A **chemical messenger** released by an endocrine gland into the **blood**; it travels to **target cells** and changes how they behave.

Card 14343.6.1definition
Question

Define an endocrine gland.

Answer

An organ that makes and releases a **hormone** directly into the **blood** (e.g. pancreas, adrenal gland, thyroid, testis).

Card 14353.6.1definition
Question

What is a target cell?

Answer

A cell with the **matching receptor** for a hormone — only target cells respond to that hormone.

Card 14363.6.1concept
Question

Contrast nervous and endocrine responses for speed and duration.

Answer

**Nervous** = fast and short-lived; **endocrine** = slower and longer-lasting.

Card 14373.6.1concept
Question

How are the nervous and endocrine systems linked in the brain?

Answer

The **hypothalamus** signals the **pituitary gland**, which controls other endocrine glands — so the nervous system can drive the endocrine system.

Card 14383.6.1concept
Question

What carries signals from the CNS to an endocrine gland?

Answer

**Neurons (nerves)** of the nervous system, often via the **hypothalamus and pituitary**.

Card 14393.6.1concept
Question

State one effect of insulin.

Answer

It **lowers blood glucose** (body cells take up glucose). Insulin is released by the **pancreas**.

Card 14403.6.1concept
Question

State one effect of epinephrine (adrenaline).

Answer

It **raises heart rate** (and breathing rate) for 'fight-or-flight'. It is released by the **adrenal gland**.

Card 14413.6.1concept
Question

State one effect of testosterone.

Answer

It **drives male sexual development** (e.g. sperm production, body changes at puberty). It is released by the **testis**.

Card 14423.6.1definition
Question

What is negative feedback?

Answer

A control loop where the **response opposes the change**, returning a level to its **set point** and keeping the body stable.

Card 14433.6.1concept
Question

Why does the body need TWO signalling systems?

Answer

The **nervous** system handles **quick** reactions; the **endocrine** system handles **sustained** changes. Together they cover both.

Card 14443.6.2definition
Question

What does it mean that the heart is 'myogenic'?

Answer

The heartbeat **starts within the heart muscle itself** (at the SA node), not from a signal sent by the brain.

Card 14453.6.2definition
Question

What is the SA node and where is it?

Answer

The **sinoatrial (SA) node** — a patch of special muscle in the **wall of the right atrium**. It is the heart's natural **pacemaker** and starts every beat.

Card 14463.6.2definition
Question

What is a pacemaker (in the heart)?

Answer

The structure that **sets the rhythm** of the heartbeat. In a healthy heart this is the **SA node**.

Card 14473.6.2concept
Question

What is the role of the AV node?

Answer

The **atrioventricular (AV) node** **delays** the impulse between the atria and ventricles, so the **atria empty before the ventricles contract**.

Card 14483.6.2concept
Question

In what order does a heartbeat happen?

Answer

**SA node fires → atria contract → AV node delays → ventricles contract.**

Card 14493.6.2concept
Question

Why does the AV node delay the impulse?

Answer

So the **atria can finish emptying** their blood into the ventricles **before** the ventricles contract — keeping the beat coordinated.

Card 14503.6.2concept
Question

Which cardiac-muscle feature aids conduction of the impulse?

Answer

**Intercalated discs** containing **gap junctions**, which let the impulse pass **directly from cell to cell**.

Card 14513.6.2concept
Question

How does the nervous system change heart rate?

Answer

Nerves from the brain's **medulla** reach the SA node — one **speeds it up**, one **slows it down**.

Card 14523.6.2concept
Question

Which hormone raises heart rate, and how?

Answer

**Adrenaline** — it reaches the SA node and **speeds it up**. It always raises heart rate.

Card 14533.6.2concept
Question

What 'always raises heart rate'?

Answer

**Adrenaline** — it speeds up the SA node and never slows it down.

Card 14543.6.2concept
Question

What is an artificial pacemaker for?

Answer

An implanted device that sends **regular electrical impulses** to keep a normal rhythm when the **SA node is faulty**.

Card 14553.6.2concept
Question

On an ECG-style trace, what is the heart doing during the T wave?

Answer

The **ventricles are relaxing / recovering** (repolarising) after contracting.

Card 14563.6.3definition
Question

What is digestion?

Answer

The **breakdown of large food molecules** into small, soluble ones that can be absorbed.

Card 14573.6.3definition
Question

What is absorption (in the gut)?

Answer

The movement of the **small, soluble products of digestion** out of the gut and into the **blood** (or lymph).

Card 14583.6.3definition
Question

What is peristalsis?

Answer

**Waves of muscle contraction** in the gut wall that **push food along** the digestive tract.

Card 14593.6.3concept
Question

What type of muscle produces peristalsis, and is it conscious?

Answer

**Involuntary smooth muscle** — it is **not** under conscious control.

Card 14603.6.3concept
Question

What controls peristalsis?

Answer

The **autonomic nervous system** — the nerves in the gut wall (the **enteric nervous system**).

Card 14613.6.3concept
Question

Which acid does the stomach secrete, and what is its pH?

Answer

**Hydrochloric acid (HCl)** — giving a very **low pH** (about 1.5–2).

Card 14623.6.3concept
Question

Give two reasons the stomach keeps a low pH.

Answer

(1) It **kills most ingested bacteria**; (2) it gives the enzyme **pepsin** its **optimum (acidic) pH**.

Card 14633.6.3concept
Question

How does stomach acid help digest protein?

Answer

It **denatures** (unfolds) proteins and provides the acidic pH that lets **pepsin** (a protease) break them into shorter chains.

Card 14643.6.3concept
Question

Name a class of drugs that lowers stomach acid secretion.

Answer

**Proton-pump inhibitors** (antacids neutralise acid that is already there).

Card 14653.6.3concept
Question

Name three enzymes secreted by the exocrine pancreas.

Answer

**Amylase** (starch), **protease** (protein) and **lipase** (fat).

Card 14663.6.3concept
Question

Match each food to its absorbable products.

Answer

Starch → **glucose**; protein → **amino acids**; triglyceride (fat) → **fatty acids and glycerol**.

Card 14673.6.3concept
Question

List three adaptations of the small intestine for absorption.

Answer

**Villi** (large surface area), a **thin (one-cell) wall** (short diffusion distance), and a **rich blood supply** (steep concentration gradient).

Card 14683.6.3concept
Question

What is the main role of the large intestine?

Answer

To **reabsorb water** (and mineral ions) and form faeces — it does no enzyme digestion.

Card 14693.6.3concept
Question

In a dialysis-tubing model, why does glucose pass through the membrane but starch does not?

Answer

**Glucose is small** enough to cross the partially permeable membrane; **starch is too large** — it must be digested first. This models absorption in the gut.

Card 14703.6.4concept
Question

What is the liver's general role with blood nutrients?

Answer

It processes the nutrient-rich blood from the gut, adjusting, storing and removing nutrients to keep the blood's composition **steady**.

Card 14713.6.4definition
Question

What is a hepatocyte?

Answer

A **liver cell** — the cell type that carries out the liver's chemical jobs, including regulating blood nutrients.

Card 14723.6.4definition
Question

What is glycogen?

Answer

A **storage carbohydrate** (a polymer of glucose) made by the liver when blood glucose is high and broken down when it is low.

Card 14733.6.4concept
Question

How does the liver respond when blood glucose is HIGH?

Answer

It **takes up glucose and stores it as glycogen** (triggered by insulin), so blood glucose falls back to normal.

Card 14743.6.4concept
Question

How does the liver respond when blood glucose is LOW?

Answer

It **breaks glycogen back into glucose** and releases it (triggered by glucagon), so blood glucose rises back to normal.

Card 14753.6.4concept
Question

Which hormone tells the liver to store glucose, and which tells it to release glucose?

Answer

**Insulin** → store as glycogen (high glucose); **glucagon** → release glucose from glycogen (low glucose).

Card 14763.6.4concept
Question

Why is blood glucose control called negative feedback?

Answer

Because the liver's response always **opposes** the change — a rise triggers storage, a fall triggers release — returning glucose toward its set point.

Card 14773.6.4concept
Question

How does the body remove excess cholesterol?

Answer

The liver removes it from the blood and releases it into **bile**; the cholesterol is then lost from the body in the **faeces**.

Card 14783.6.4concept
Question

Name three jobs of the liver besides regulating glucose.

Answer

Removing excess **cholesterol** (into bile), **detoxifying** substances like alcohol, and breaking down old **red blood cells**.

Card 14793.6.4definition
Question

What is bilirubin, and where does it come from?

Answer

A yellow **pigment** produced when the liver breaks down old **red blood cells**; it is passed into bile.

Card 14803.6.4concept
Question

What causes jaundice?

Answer

Bilirubin **is not cleared** by a damaged liver, so it **builds up** in the blood and colours the skin and the whites of the eyes **yellow**.

Card 14813.6.4concept
Question

Why does excess alcohol harm the liver's functions?

Answer

Alcohol is **detoxified by hepatocytes**; an excess **damages and scars** them, so the liver regulates glucose, cholesterol and other substances less effectively.

Card 14823.6.5concept
Question

Which gas does the body monitor to control breathing rate?

Answer

**Carbon dioxide (CO₂)** — not oxygen. A rise in CO₂ is the main signal that speeds up breathing.

Card 14833.6.5definition
Question

Define ventilation rate.

Answer

The **number of breaths taken per minute** (together with how deep each breath is).

Card 14843.6.5definition
Question

What is a chemoreceptor?

Answer

A **sensor that detects a chemical change** — here, a rise in blood CO₂ (and the fall in pH it causes).

Card 14853.6.5concept
Question

Where are the chemoreceptors that monitor blood CO₂?

Answer

In the **medulla** of the brain and in the walls of the **aorta and carotid arteries**.

Card 14863.6.5concept
Question

What is the control centre for breathing, and what does it do?

Answer

The **medulla** (in the brainstem) — it sends nerve impulses to the breathing muscles to set the ventilation rate.

Card 14873.6.5concept
Question

Which muscles act as the effectors that change breathing?

Answer

The **diaphragm and intercostal muscles** — they make breathing faster and deeper.

Card 14883.6.5concept
Question

How does a rise in blood CO₂ affect ventilation rate?

Answer

Ventilation rate **increases** — chemoreceptors detect the rise and the medulla speeds up breathing to exhale the extra CO₂.

Card 14893.6.5concept
Question

How does faster breathing bring blood CO₂ back to normal?

Answer

Faster, deeper breathing **exhales more CO₂**, so blood CO₂ (and pH) fall back to the normal level.

Card 14903.6.5concept
Question

Why is the control of ventilation an example of negative feedback?

Answer

The response (faster breathing, which removes CO₂) **opposes** the change (rising CO₂), returning CO₂ to its set point.

Card 14913.6.5concept
Question

What happens to breathing when blood CO₂ falls below normal?

Answer

Chemoreceptors are stimulated **less**, the medulla **slows breathing down**, so less CO₂ is exhaled and CO₂ rises back to normal.

Card 14923.6.5concept
Question

How does rising CO₂ affect blood pH?

Answer

It **lowers** blood pH (makes the blood more acidic), because dissolved CO₂ forms acid.

Card 14933.6.5concept
Question

On a graph of CO₂ against ventilation rate, what is the trend?

Answer

As CO₂ **increases**, ventilation rate **increases** — a positive correlation.

Card 14943.6.6definition
Question

What is an essential nutrient?

Answer

A nutrient the body **cannot make** for itself, so it **must come from the diet** (e.g. vitamin C, vitamin D).

Card 14953.6.6definition
Question

What is a balanced diet?

Answer

A diet containing **all the nutrient groups in the correct proportions** to meet the body's needs.

Card 14963.6.6definition
Question

What is malnutrition?

Answer

Poor health from a diet with **too little, too much, or the wrong balance** of nutrients (under- OR over-nutrition).

Card 14973.6.6concept
Question

State one role of vitamin C (ascorbic acid).

Answer

It is needed to make strong **collagen** for skin, gums and blood-vessel walls.

Card 14983.6.6concept
Question

What deficiency disease results from a lack of vitamin C?

Answer

**Scurvy** — weak connective tissue, bleeding gums and slow wound healing.

Card 14993.6.6concept
Question

What is the role of vitamin D?

Answer

It is needed to **absorb calcium** from food into the blood.

Card 15003.6.6concept
Question

Why does a lack of vitamin D cause abnormal bones?

Answer

Less calcium is absorbed → too little calcium for bone → bones are **not hardened properly** → soft, deformed bones (**rickets**).

Card 15013.6.6concept
Question

Outline the chain from a high-fat diet to coronary heart disease.

Answer

Saturated fat → raises **cholesterol** → **plaques** in arteries (atherosclerosis) → coronary arteries **narrow** → less **oxygen** to heart muscle → **CHD / heart attack**.

Card 15023.6.6definition
Question

What is atherosclerosis?

Answer

The build-up of **fatty plaques** in artery walls, which **narrows** the arteries.

Card 15033.6.6concept
Question

Why is obesity a health risk?

Answer

It raises blood pressure (**hypertension**) and is linked to **type-2 diabetes** and **coronary heart disease**.

Card 15043.6.6concept
Question

Why is a large bag of potato chips a nutritional concern?

Answer

It is **high in fat, salt and energy** but low in vitamins, minerals and fibre — contributing to obesity and high blood pressure.

Card 15053.6.6concept
Question

Name the two opposite forms of malnutrition.

Answer

**Under-nutrition** (too little → deficiency diseases) and **over-nutrition** (too much → obesity, CHD).

Card 15063.7.1definition
Question

What is a pathogen?

Answer

An **organism or particle that causes disease** — a bacterium, virus, fungus or protist.

Card 15073.7.1concept
Question

Name the four main types of pathogen.

Answer

**Bacteria, viruses, fungi and protists.**

Card 15083.7.1concept
Question

What are the two main ways a pathogen harms the body?

Answer

By **damaging the cells** it infects, and by releasing **toxins** that disrupt how cells work.

Card 15093.7.1definition
Question

What is a primary (first-line) defence?

Answer

A barrier that **stops pathogens entering** the body in the first place — the skin, mucous membranes and stomach acid.

Card 15103.7.1concept
Question

Name the three primary defences.

Answer

The **skin**, the **mucous membranes** (mucus + cilia) and **stomach acid**.

Card 15113.7.1concept
Question

How does the skin defend the body?

Answer

It is a tough, dry **physical barrier** of dead cells that pathogens cannot easily cross while it is unbroken.

Card 15123.7.1concept
Question

How do mucous membranes defend the body?

Answer

They make sticky **mucus** that **traps** pathogens; in the airways, **cilia** then sweep the mucus away.

Card 15133.7.1concept
Question

How does stomach acid defend the body?

Answer

Its strong acid (very **low pH**) **kills most pathogens** that are swallowed in food or mucus — a **chemical** barrier.

Card 15143.7.1concept
Question

Which primary defence is chemical, not physical?

Answer

**Stomach acid** — it chemically kills pathogens. Skin and mucus are physical barriers.

Card 15153.7.1concept
Question

Why are primary defences described as non-specific?

Answer

They work against **any pathogen**, not just one particular kind.

Card 15163.7.1concept
Question

Why is a cut or wound dangerous?

Answer

It **breaks the skin barrier**, giving pathogens a direct way into the body.

Card 15173.7.1concept
Question

Why might less stomach acid increase the risk of gut infection?

Answer

Less acid **kills fewer swallowed pathogens**, so more survive, reach the gut and cause infection.

Card 15183.7.1concept
Question

How can severe watery diarrhoea cause death?

Answer

Through **dehydration** — a large loss of water (and salts) from the body, which can be fatal.

Card 15193.7.2definition
Question

What is a blood clot?

Answer

A plug of trapped blood cells held together by a mesh of **fibrin** fibres, which seals a damaged blood vessel.

Card 15203.7.2concept
Question

What two jobs does a blood clot do?

Answer

It **stops blood loss** AND acts as a **barrier that keeps pathogens out** of the wound.

Card 15213.7.2concept
Question

What causes a blood clot to form?

Answer

A **cut / damaged blood vessel** — its exposed surface activates platelets, which start the cascade.

Card 15223.7.2concept
Question

What is the role of platelets in clotting?

Answer

They **stick** to the wound, **clump** together and **release clotting factors** that start the cascade.

Card 15233.7.2definition
Question

What are clotting factors?

Answer

Chemicals released at a wound that **switch on** the cascade of reactions leading to a clot.

Card 15243.7.2concept
Question

Which enzyme converts fibrinogen into fibrin?

Answer

**Thrombin** — it turns soluble fibrinogen into insoluble fibrin.

Card 15253.7.2concept
Question

What is the difference between fibrinogen and fibrin?

Answer

**Fibrinogen** is **soluble** (dissolved in plasma); **fibrin** is **insoluble** and forms the fibre mesh of the clot.

Card 15263.7.2concept
Question

What happens to prothrombin during clotting?

Answer

Clotting factors convert inactive **prothrombin** into the active enzyme **thrombin**.

Card 15273.7.2concept
Question

What does the fibrin mesh do?

Answer

It **traps platelets and red blood cells**, forming the clot that dries into a **scab**.

Card 15283.7.2concept
Question

Put the clotting cascade in order.

Answer

Cut vessel → platelets stick / release clotting factors → thrombin formed → fibrinogen → fibrin mesh → clot / scab.

Card 15293.7.2concept
Question

Why does clotting only happen at a wound?

Answer

It is triggered by a **damaged vessel surface**; clots in healthy vessels could block blood flow, so 'no damage → no clot'.

Card 15303.7.2concept
Question

How does a clot help prevent infection?

Answer

The clot / scab **seals the cut**, forming a **physical barrier** so pathogens cannot enter the tissues.

Card 15313.7.3concept
Question

What are the three key features of the innate immune system?

Answer

It is **fast**, **non-specific**, and has **no memory**.

Card 15323.7.3concept
Question

Which type of leucocyte carries out the innate response?

Answer

**Phagocytes** — for example **macrophages** and **neutrophils**.

Card 15333.7.3definition
Question

Define a phagocyte.

Answer

A type of white blood cell (leucocyte) that **engulfs and digests pathogens** by phagocytosis.

Card 15343.7.3definition
Question

Define phagocytosis.

Answer

The process in which a phagocyte **engulfs a pathogen, encloses it in a vacuole, and digests it with enzymes**.

Card 15353.7.3concept
Question

List the steps of phagocytosis in order.

Answer

**Recognise** the pathogen → **engulf** it → **enclose** it in a vacuole → **digest** it with enzymes.

Card 15363.7.3definition
Question

What does 'non-specific' mean for the innate system?

Answer

It acts against **any pathogen** in the same way, rather than targeting just one type.

Card 15373.7.3concept
Question

What is a vacuole's role in phagocytosis?

Answer

It is the **membrane-bound 'bubble'** that holds the engulfed pathogen while enzymes break it down.

Card 15383.7.3concept
Question

What destroys the pathogen inside the phagocyte?

Answer

**Enzymes** released into the vacuole, which break the pathogen down.

Card 15393.7.3concept
Question

How does the innate system differ from the adaptive system?

Answer

Innate = **fast, non-specific, no memory** (phagocytes). Adaptive = **slow, specific, has memory** (lymphocytes).

Card 15403.7.3concept
Question

Are lymphocytes (B-cells and T-cells) part of the innate system?

Answer

**No** — they are part of the **adaptive** system. The innate cells are the phagocytes.

Card 15413.7.3concept
Question

Which cell count rises FIRST during an infection, and why?

Answer

The **phagocyte** count rises first, because the innate response is the **fast** one; lymphocytes rise later.

Card 15423.7.3concept
Question

Why can phagocytes respond almost immediately to a new pathogen?

Answer

Because they are **non-specific** — they do not need to 'learn' the pathogen first, so they act straight away.

Card 15433.7.4concept
Question

What does 'specific' (adaptive) immunity mean?

Answer

Immunity that targets **one particular pathogen**, recognised by its **antigen** — unlike the non-specific skin and phagocytes.

Card 15443.7.4definition
Question

Define an antigen.

Answer

A molecule (usually on a pathogen's surface) that the immune system **recognises as foreign** and responds to.

Card 15453.7.4concept
Question

Which white blood cells carry out the adaptive response?

Answer

**Lymphocytes** — mainly **B-cells** and **T-cells**.

Card 15463.7.4concept
Question

What is the main function of a helper T-cell?

Answer

To **activate other immune cells**, especially the **B-cells** — it does **not** make antibodies itself.

Card 15473.7.4concept
Question

Which cells actually make antibodies?

Answer

**B-cells** (which become **plasma cells**) once they have been activated.

Card 15483.7.4concept
Question

What event triggers antibody production?

Answer

A **lymphocyte detecting the antigen** of an invading pathogen.

Card 15493.7.4concept
Question

Describe the shape of an antibody and what its tips do.

Answer

An antibody is a **Y-shaped protein**; the **tips of its arms** are **antigen-binding sites** (the variable region) that fit one antigen.

Card 15503.7.4concept
Question

Why does one antibody bind only one pathogen?

Answer

Its binding sites are a **specific shape, complementary to one antigen** — like a key that fits only one lock.

Card 15513.7.4definition
Question

What is a memory cell?

Answer

A **long-lived lymphocyte** kept after an infection, giving a **faster, stronger** response if the same pathogen returns.

Card 15523.7.4concept
Question

Why is the secondary response faster and larger than the primary?

Answer

**Memory cells** from the first exposure recognise the antigen **immediately**, so antibodies are made **faster and in greater amounts**.

Card 15533.7.4concept
Question

Compare the primary and secondary response on a graph.

Answer

Primary: a **slow, late, low** curve. Secondary: a **fast, early, much higher** curve.

Card 15543.7.4concept
Question

If a person's blood shows no antibodies before vaccination, what can you conclude?

Answer

They have had **no prior exposure** to that antigen — no previous infection or vaccination against it.

Card 15553.7.4concept
Question

Which defences are non-specific (innate)?

Answer

The **skin** barrier and **phagocytes** (phagocytosis) — they attack any pathogen the same way, with no memory.

Card 15563.7.5definition
Question

What does HIV stand for, and what does it destroy?

Answer

**Human Immunodeficiency Virus** — it infects and destroys **helper T-cells**.

Card 15573.7.5concept
Question

What is the difference between HIV and AIDS?

Answer

**HIV** is the virus; **AIDS** is the late stage of infection, when helper T-cell numbers are so low the immune system collapses.

Card 15583.7.5concept
Question

Why is destroying helper T-cells so damaging?

Answer

Helper T-cells **activate other immune cells** (including B-cells that make antibodies), so losing them cripples the whole immune response.

Card 15593.7.5definition
Question

What are 'opportunistic infections'?

Answer

Infections that take hold because the immune system is too weak to stop them — a hallmark of **AIDS**.

Card 15603.7.5concept
Question

What usually causes death in someone with AIDS?

Answer

**Opportunistic infections and cancers** that a healthy immune system would normally prevent — not the virus directly.

Card 15613.7.5definition
Question

Define an antigen.

Answer

A molecule (often on a pathogen's surface) that the immune system **recognises as foreign** and responds to.

Card 15623.7.5definition
Question

Define an antibody.

Answer

A **Y-shaped protein** that binds to **one specific antigen**, marking the pathogen for destruction.

Card 15633.7.5definition
Question

What is a vaccine?

Answer

A **harmless** preparation of a pathogen's antigens that triggers **immunity (memory)** without causing the disease.

Card 15643.7.5concept
Question

Outline how a vaccine produces immunity.

Answer

Harmless **antigen** → **primary response** (antibodies) → **memory cells** form → faster, larger **secondary response** on real infection.

Card 15653.7.5definition
Question

What is immunological memory?

Answer

The ability of the immune system to respond **faster and more strongly** the second time it meets the same antigen, thanks to **memory cells**.

Card 15663.7.5concept
Question

Why is the secondary response faster and larger than the first?

Answer

**Memory cells** from the first exposure are already present, so antibodies are made **quickly and in greater numbers**.

Card 15673.7.5concept
Question

How can a falling helper T-cell graph explain worsening symptoms?

Answer

As the **count drops** over years, the immune response weakens, so the patient suffers more **opportunistic infections** — progressing to **AIDS**.

Card 15683.7.5concept
Question

Why is there still no simple vaccine for HIV?

Answer

HIV destroys the very **helper T-cells** a vaccine relies on to build immune memory.

Card 15693.7.6definition
Question

What is an antibiotic?

Answer

A medicine that **kills bacteria** (or stops them growing) by attacking a structure or process **only bacteria have**.

Card 15703.7.6concept
Question

Name a target that antibiotics attack in bacteria.

Answer

The **cell wall** (its building), or bacterial **ribosomes** / **enzymes** — structures unique to bacterial cells.

Card 15713.7.6concept
Question

Why can't antibiotics treat a virus such as influenza?

Answer

A **virus is not a cell** — it has no cell wall, no ribosomes and no metabolism of its own, so there is **no bacterial target** for the antibiotic to attack.

Card 15723.7.6concept
Question

Why do antibiotics harm bacteria but not human cells?

Answer

They attack targets **unique to bacteria** (e.g. cell-wall building, bacterial ribosomes) that human cells do not have.

Card 15733.7.6definition
Question

Define antibiotic resistance.

Answer

The ability of some **bacteria to survive** an antibiotic that would normally kill them.

Card 15743.7.6concept
Question

How does antibiotic resistance evolve?

Answer

By **natural selection**: a few bacteria are already resistant → the antibiotic kills the non-resistant ones → the **resistant survivors reproduce** → the strain becomes common.

Card 15753.7.6concept
Question

Do individual bacteria 'learn' to resist an antibiotic?

Answer

**No** — resistance comes from existing **variation** (often a mutation) and is **selected** by the antibiotic; it is not learned during a bacterium's life.

Card 15763.7.6concept
Question

Why might the same antibiotic fail against a second infection?

Answer

A **resistant strain** has been selected — the resistant bacteria survived the first time and reproduced, so the drug no longer kills them.

Card 15773.7.6concept
Question

In an experiment, why might bacterial colonies grow despite an antibiotic?

Answer

Those colonies are a **resistant strain** that can survive the antibiotic.

Card 15783.7.6definition
Question

Define a zoonosis.

Answer

An infectious disease that can be transmitted **directly from an animal to a human**.

Card 15793.7.6concept
Question

Give three examples of zoonoses.

Answer

**Rabies** (from a bite), some forms of **tuberculosis** (from cattle) and **Japanese encephalitis** (animal reservoir in pigs/birds).

Card 15803.7.6concept
Question

What do rabies, TB and Japanese encephalitis have in common?

Answer

They are all **zoonoses** — they can pass from an **animal to a human**.

Card 15813.8.1definition
Question

Define a population.

Answer

All the individuals of the **same species** living in the **same area at the same time**.

Card 15823.8.1definition
Question

Define a community.

Answer

All the populations of **different species** living together and **interacting** in the same area.

Card 15833.8.1definition
Question

Define a habitat.

Answer

The **place** (the type of environment) where a species or community normally lives.

Card 15843.8.1definition
Question

Define an ecosystem.

Answer

A **community** of organisms together with the **abiotic (non-living) environment** it interacts with.

Card 15853.8.1definition
Question

Define species richness.

Answer

The **number of different species** present in a community (a simple count, ignoring how many of each).

Card 15863.8.1concept
Question

What is the nesting order of the ecological levels?

Answer

**Population → community → ecosystem** — one species, then many populations, then community plus its environment.

Card 15873.8.1concept
Question

What is the key difference between a community and an ecosystem?

Answer

A community is the **living organisms only**; an ecosystem **also includes the abiotic (non-living) environment**.

Card 15883.8.1concept
Question

How are the individuals in a community related?

Answer

Their populations **interact and depend on one another** — through feeding relationships, competition and other interactions.

Card 15893.8.1concept
Question

What two basic types of organism make up a community?

Answer

**Autotrophs (producers)** that make their own food, and **heterotrophs (consumers and decomposers)** that take in food made by others.

Card 15903.8.1definition
Question

What is an autotroph?

Answer

An organism that **makes its own food**, usually by **photosynthesis** (a producer, e.g. grass or algae).

Card 15913.8.1definition
Question

What is a heterotroph?

Answer

An organism that **takes in food made by other organisms** (a consumer or decomposer, e.g. a rabbit, fox or fungus).

Card 15923.8.1concept
Question

On a diagram, what does an oval enclosing autotrophs, heterotrophs AND the abiotic environment represent?

Answer

An **ecosystem** — because it includes the non-living environment as well as the living organisms.

Card 15933.8.1concept
Question

Does a community include abiotic (non-living) factors?

Answer

**No** — a community is living organisms only. Adding the abiotic environment makes it an **ecosystem**.

Card 15943.8.1concept
Question

How is species richness different from abundance?

Answer

**Species richness** counts how many **different species** there are; **abundance** counts how many **individuals** of a species there are.

Card 15953.8.2definition
Question

What is an abiotic factor?

Answer

A **non-living**, physical or chemical feature of the environment (e.g. temperature, light, water, pH, salinity).

Card 15963.8.2definition
Question

What is a biotic factor?

Answer

A **living** feature — an interaction with other organisms (e.g. food, competition, predation, disease).

Card 15973.8.2concept
Question

Give three examples of abiotic factors.

Answer

Any of: **temperature, light intensity, water / rainfall, pH, salinity, dissolved oxygen, soil mineral nutrients**.

Card 15983.8.2concept
Question

Give three examples of biotic factors.

Answer

Any of: **food supply, competition, predation, disease, availability of mates**.

Card 15993.8.2definition
Question

What is meant by the distribution of a species?

Answer

The **range of places where a species is found** — where its individuals actually live.

Card 16003.8.2definition
Question

What is a range of tolerance?

Answer

The range of values of an abiotic factor within which an organism can **survive**; outside it the organism is **absent**.

Card 16013.8.2concept
Question

What happens beyond an organism's limits of tolerance?

Answer

The factor is too extreme, so the organism **cannot survive there** and is **absent**.

Card 16023.8.2definition
Question

What is a limiting factor?

Answer

The factor in **shortest supply** (or most extreme), which **holds back** growth or survival in that place.

Card 16033.8.2concept
Question

In open ocean, why might phytoplankton growth be limited by iron?

Answer

**Iron** is scarce there, so even with plenty of light and nutrients, growth only increases when **iron is added** — iron is the limiting factor.

Card 16043.8.2concept
Question

Which two types of factor set a species' distribution?

Answer

**Abiotic** (non-living conditions) **and biotic** (interactions with other organisms) — both together.

Card 16053.8.2concept
Question

How can a biotic factor make a species absent from suitable habitat?

Answer

Through **competition, predation, disease or too little food** — a living factor can exclude a species even where conditions are right.

Card 16063.8.2concept
Question

Is temperature an abiotic or a biotic factor?

Answer

**Abiotic** — it is a non-living, physical condition.

Card 16073.8.2concept
Question

Is competition an abiotic or a biotic factor?

Answer

**Biotic** — it is an interaction between living organisms.

Card 16083.8.3concept
Question

Why do ecologists estimate population size instead of counting every organism?

Answer

Counting everything is **impractical** — there are too many, many **hide**, and many **move** — so a random **sample** is counted and scaled up.

Card 16093.8.3concept
Question

Why must sampling be random?

Answer

To avoid **bias**, so the sample is **representative** of the whole habitat.

Card 16103.8.3concept
Question

Which method is used for non-moving organisms like plants?

Answer

**Quadrat sampling** — count organisms in random quadrats, find the mean, and scale up.

Card 16113.8.3concept
Question

Which method is used for animals that move?

Answer

**Capture–mark–release–recapture** — moving animals can't be counted in a fixed area.

Card 16123.8.3concept
Question

How does quadrat sampling estimate a population?

Answer

Count organisms in several **random quadrats**, find the **mean per quadrat**, then **scale up** to the whole habitat area.

Card 16133.8.3concept
Question

What are the steps of capture–mark–release–recapture?

Answer

**Capture** and **mark** a first sample, **release** them, let them mix, **recapture** a second sample, and count how many are marked.

Card 16143.8.3definition
Question

State the Lincoln index equation.

Answer

**N = (M × n) ÷ m**.

Card 16153.8.3definition
Question

In the Lincoln index, what is M?

Answer

The **number marked** (and released) in the **first** sample.

Card 16163.8.3definition
Question

In the Lincoln index, what is n?

Answer

The **total size of the second** sample (the recapture).

Card 16173.8.3definition
Question

In the Lincoln index, what is m?

Answer

The number in the second sample that were **already marked** (recaptured marks).

Card 16183.8.3definition
Question

What is N in the Lincoln index?

Answer

The **estimated total population size**.

Card 16193.8.3concept
Question

Name two assumptions of capture–mark–release–recapture.

Answer

Marked animals **mix back evenly**; **no births, deaths or migration** between samples; marks are **not lost or harmful**; marking doesn't change the chance of recapture.

Card 16203.8.3concept
Question

If 60 are marked, a second sample of 80 contains 20 marks, what is the estimated population?

Answer

N = (60 × 80) ÷ 20 = **240**.

Card 16213.8.3concept
Question

A memory hook for choosing the method?

Answer

**Sit still → quadrat; runs away → recapture.**

Card 16223.8.4definition
Question

Define carrying capacity.

Answer

The **maximum population size** of a species that a habitat can support over a long period, given its resources.

Card 16233.8.4concept
Question

What shape is a population growth curve?

Answer

A **sigmoid (S-shaped) curve**: a slow lag start, a rapid exponential rise, then a plateau at the carrying capacity.

Card 16243.8.4concept
Question

Name the phases of the sigmoid growth curve in order.

Answer

**Lag → exponential → transitional → plateau.**

Card 16253.8.4concept
Question

Why is growth so fast in the exponential phase?

Answer

There are **plenty of resources and few limiting factors**, so nearly all individuals survive and reproduce — the population grows by ever-larger amounts.

Card 16263.8.4concept
Question

Why does a population level off at the plateau?

Answer

**Limiting factors** (shortage of food, water, space; disease; predation) raise deaths until **births ≈ deaths**, so growth stops at the carrying capacity.

Card 16273.8.4concept
Question

What is happening to births and deaths at the carrying capacity?

Answer

**Births ≈ deaths** — they are roughly equal, so the population stays about the same size.

Card 16283.8.4definition
Question

Define a limiting factor.

Answer

Any factor that **slows or stops** a population growing — e.g. shortage of food, water or space, disease, or predation.

Card 16293.8.4concept
Question

What is a density-DEPENDENT limiting factor? Give an example.

Answer

One whose effect gets **stronger as the population becomes more crowded** — e.g. competition, disease or predation.

Card 16303.8.4concept
Question

What is a density-INDEPENDENT limiting factor? Give an example.

Answer

One that acts the **same regardless of population density** — e.g. drought, fire, flood or extreme cold.

Card 16313.8.4concept
Question

If the flat top of a growth curve (region X) is labelled, what factor causes it?

Answer

A **limiting factor** such as competition for food / limited space, as the population reaches its carrying capacity.

Card 16323.8.4concept
Question

How does temperature influence the population growth of a plant like duckweed?

Answer

There is an **optimum temperature**; temperature sets the rate of enzyme reactions (e.g. photosynthesis), so growth is fastest at the optimum, slow when too cold, and reduced when too hot (enzymes denature).

Card 16333.8.4concept
Question

Why can't a population grow exponentially forever?

Answer

Resources (food, water, space) are **limited**, so as numbers rise, limiting factors take effect and growth slows to the carrying capacity.

Card 16343.8.5definition
Question

What is an interspecific relationship?

Answer

A close interaction **between two different species** in a community.

Card 16353.8.5concept
Question

How can every interspecific relationship be summarised?

Answer

By a **pair of signs** — for each species: benefits (**+**), harmed (**–**) or unaffected (**0**).

Card 16363.8.5concept
Question

Which relationship benefits BOTH species?

Answer

**Mutualism** — it is the only **+ / +** relationship.

Card 16373.8.5concept
Question

Which relationship harms BOTH species?

Answer

**Interspecific competition** — it is the only **– / –** relationship.

Card 16383.8.5definition
Question

Define mutualism.

Answer

An interaction in which **two species live together and both benefit** (+ / +).

Card 16393.8.5definition
Question

Define interspecific competition.

Answer

An interaction in which **two species compete for the same limited resource**, so **both are harmed** (– / –).

Card 16403.8.5definition
Question

Define predation.

Answer

An interaction in which one animal (the predator) **kills and eats** another animal (the prey). Predator +, prey –.

Card 16413.8.5definition
Question

Define herbivory.

Answer

An interaction in which an **animal feeds on a plant**. Herbivore +, plant –.

Card 16423.8.5definition
Question

Define parasitism.

Answer

An interaction in which a **parasite lives on or in a host**, gaining nutrients (+) while harming the host (–).

Card 16433.8.5definition
Question

Define pathogenicity.

Answer

An interaction in which a **pathogen (a disease-causing organism) infects a host**, benefiting itself (+) and causing disease in the host (–).

Card 16443.8.5concept
Question

How do you tell a predator from a parasite?

Answer

A **predator kills its prey quickly**; a **parasite lives on/in one host** and feeds off it over time without quickly killing it.

Card 16453.8.5concept
Question

If both organisms are harmed, which relationship is it?

Answer

Almost always **interspecific competition** (– / –).

Card 16463.8.5concept
Question

How do you score 'explain the type of relationship' for 2 marks?

Answer

**Name** the relationship **and justify** it using the **effect on each species** (the benefit or harm to each).

Card 16473.8.6definition
Question

What is an ecological niche?

Answer

The **full role** of a species in its community — its abiotic tolerances, the resources it uses, and its interactions with other species.

Card 16483.8.6definition
Question

State the competitive exclusion principle.

Answer

Two species that need the **same limited resource** cannot coexist **indefinitely**; the better competitor excludes the other.

Card 16493.8.6concept
Question

What happens to the species that loses in competitive exclusion?

Answer

It is **excluded** — it dies out locally, or survives only by shifting to a **different niche** (using a different resource).

Card 16503.8.6definition
Question

What is a fundamental niche?

Answer

The **whole niche** a species could occupy if **no competitors** were present.

Card 16513.8.6definition
Question

What is a realized niche?

Answer

The **smaller** part of the niche a species **actually** occupies once competitors restrict it.

Card 16523.8.6concept
Question

How does competition change a species' niche?

Answer

It shrinks the **fundamental niche** down to a smaller **realized niche**.

Card 16533.8.6definition
Question

What is allelopathy?

Answer

When a **plant releases a chemical** that **inhibits the growth/germination of other plants** nearby, reducing competition.

Card 16543.8.6definition
Question

What is antibiosis?

Answer

When a **microorganism releases a chemical** that **inhibits the growth of other microorganisms**, reducing competition.

Card 16553.8.6concept
Question

Give an example of allelopathy.

Answer

The **black walnut** tree releases a chemical into the soil that stops many plants growing beneath it.

Card 16563.8.6concept
Question

How can you tell allelopathy from antibiosis?

Answer

**Allelopathy** = a **plant** inhibits other **plants**; **antibiosis** = a **microbe** inhibits other **microbes**. Both are chemical competition.

Card 16573.8.6concept
Question

If a population crashes only when grown WITH another species, what is the likely cause?

Answer

**Interspecific competition** leading to **competitive exclusion** — not predation or disease.

Card 16583.8.6concept
Question

Why can two species sometimes coexist despite competing?

Answer

If their niches **overlap only partly**, they can use slightly different resources and avoid full competitive exclusion.

Card 16593.8.7definition
Question

What is a keystone species?

Answer

A species with a **disproportionately large effect** on its community relative to its **abundance** — remove it and the community structure changes dramatically.

Card 16603.8.7concept
Question

Where does the term 'keystone' come from?

Answer

The **keystone of an arch** — the small top stone that holds the arch up; remove it and the **whole arch collapses**.

Card 16613.8.7concept
Question

Is a keystone species the same as the most abundant (dominant) species?

Answer

**No** — a keystone species is often present in **small numbers**; its importance comes from **what it does**, not how common it is.

Card 16623.8.7definition
Question

What is a keystone predator?

Answer

A predator that controls the **strongest competitor**, keeping its numbers down so **many other species can coexist** — raising biodiversity.

Card 16633.8.7definition
Question

What is an ecosystem engineer?

Answer

A keystone species that physically **changes the habitat** (e.g. a beaver building a dam), creating conditions many other species depend on.

Card 16643.8.7concept
Question

Why is the beaver a keystone species?

Answer

Its **dams create wetland habitats** that fish, amphibians, insects and birds depend on, so its effect is **far larger than its numbers**.

Card 16653.8.7definition
Question

What is a trophic cascade?

Answer

A chain of **knock-on effects** that spreads through a food web when one species (often a top predator) is added or removed.

Card 16663.8.7concept
Question

What happens to a community when a keystone predator is removed?

Answer

Its prey is no longer controlled, so that prey **takes over and out-competes** other species — **biodiversity falls**.

Card 16673.8.7concept
Question

How does a keystone predator affect biodiversity?

Answer

It **raises** biodiversity, by stopping the strongest competitor from taking over so many species can coexist.

Card 16683.8.7concept
Question

In a sea-star removal experiment, what happens to prey diversity?

Answer

It **falls** — without the predator the mussels dominate the rock and crowd other species out.

Card 16693.8.7concept
Question

Give one keystone predator example and one ecosystem-engineer example.

Answer

Keystone predator: a predatory **sea star** eating mussels. Ecosystem engineer: the **beaver** building dams.

Card 16703.8.7concept
Question

Why does losing a keystone species reduce biodiversity?

Answer

Its stabilising **control is removed**, so one species takes over and **crowds out** the rest, leaving fewer different species.

Card 16713.9.1definition
Question

Define an autotroph.

Answer

An organism that **makes its own organic molecules** from inorganic substances (e.g. CO₂), using an external energy source. 'Auto' = self.

Card 16723.9.1definition
Question

Define a heterotroph.

Answer

An organism that **cannot make its own organic molecules** and must take in ready-made organic food from other organisms. 'Hetero' = other.

Card 16733.9.1concept
Question

What carbon source do all autotrophs use?

Answer

**Inorganic carbon dioxide (CO₂)** — they fix it into organic molecules.

Card 16743.9.1concept
Question

How do photoautotrophs get their energy?

Answer

From **light** (photosynthesis). Examples: plants, algae, cyanobacteria.

Card 16753.9.1concept
Question

How do chemoautotrophs get their energy?

Answer

By **oxidising simple inorganic substances** (chemosynthesis). Examples: deep-sea vent bacteria.

Card 16763.9.1concept
Question

How do photoautotrophs and chemoautotrophs differ?

Answer

Only in their **energy source** (light vs oxidising inorganic substances); both fix **CO₂** for carbon.

Card 16773.9.1definition
Question

What is holozoic nutrition?

Answer

Heterotrophic nutrition where food is **ingested** and **digested internally** — the way animals feed.

Card 16783.9.1definition
Question

What is a saprotroph?

Answer

A heterotroph that feeds on **dead or decaying** matter by releasing enzymes onto it and absorbing the products — **external digestion** (many fungi/bacteria).

Card 16793.9.1definition
Question

What is a mixotroph?

Answer

An organism that uses **both** autotrophic and heterotrophic nutrition — it can make its own food and feed on others (e.g. Euglena).

Card 16803.9.1concept
Question

Which organisms are the producers in an ecosystem?

Answer

**Autotrophs** — they produce organic molecules that feed the heterotrophs.

Card 16813.9.1concept
Question

What two things define a mode of nutrition?

Answer

The **energy source** and the **carbon source** of the organism.

Card 16823.9.1concept
Question

Where does a saprotroph digest its food?

Answer

**Outside** its body (external digestion) — then it absorbs the digested products.

Card 16833.9.2definition
Question

What is a food chain?

Answer

A diagram showing a **single path of energy** through an ecosystem, drawn as organisms joined by **arrows**.

Card 16843.9.2definition
Question

What is a food web?

Answer

**Several food chains linked together**, showing the many feeding relationships in an ecosystem more realistically.

Card 16853.9.2definition
Question

What is a trophic level?

Answer

An organism's **feeding position** in a food chain (e.g. producer, primary consumer, secondary consumer).

Card 16863.9.2concept
Question

Which way does a food-chain arrow point, and what does it show?

Answer

From the organism **being eaten** to the organism that **eats it** — the direction **energy flows** ('is eaten by').

Card 16873.9.2concept
Question

What are the four trophic levels in order?

Answer

**Producer** (1) → **primary consumer** (2) → **secondary consumer** (3) → **tertiary consumer** (4).

Card 16883.9.2definition
Question

What is a producer?

Answer

An organism that makes its own food by **photosynthesis** (an autotroph); it is always the **first** trophic level.

Card 16893.9.2definition
Question

What is a primary consumer?

Answer

A **herbivore** — an organism that eats **producers** (the second trophic level).

Card 16903.9.2definition
Question

What is a secondary consumer?

Answer

A **carnivore** that eats **primary consumers** (the third trophic level).

Card 16913.9.2definition
Question

What is a tertiary consumer?

Answer

A **carnivore** that eats **secondary consumers** (the fourth trophic level).

Card 16923.9.2concept
Question

How do you read an organism's trophic level from a chain?

Answer

**Count the arrows from the producer** up to it: 1 producer, 2 primary, 3 secondary, 4 tertiary consumer.

Card 16933.9.2concept
Question

Can one organism occupy more than one trophic level?

Answer

**Yes** — in a food web an organism that feeds at different levels (e.g. eats both a herbivore and a carnivore) occupies two levels at once.

Card 16943.9.2concept
Question

How do you find an organism's energy source in a food web?

Answer

**Trace its arrows backwards** until you reach a **producer**, which originally captured the energy from **sunlight**.

Card 16953.9.2concept
Question

Where does the energy in almost every food chain originally come from?

Answer

**Sunlight** — captured by producers during **photosynthesis**.

Card 16963.9.3concept
Question

About what percentage of energy passes to the next trophic level?

Answer

About **10%** — the other ~90% is lost at each level.

Card 16973.9.3concept
Question

In what three main ways is energy lost between trophic levels?

Answer

As **heat from respiration**, in **faeces (undigested waste)**, and in **uneaten or dead material**.

Card 16983.9.3concept
Question

What is the single biggest energy loss between trophic levels?

Answer

**Heat from respiration** — it leaves the ecosystem and cannot be passed on as food.

Card 16993.9.3definition
Question

Define energy transfer efficiency.

Answer

The **percentage** of energy at one trophic level that is passed on to the next — usually about **10%**.

Card 17003.9.3definition
Question

What is a pyramid of energy?

Answer

A diagram in which each bar shows the **energy** at one trophic level; the bars **get smaller** up the levels because energy is lost at each step.

Card 17013.9.3concept
Question

Why do the bars of a pyramid of energy shrink going up?

Answer

Because each level holds **less energy** than the one below — only ~10% is passed on each step.

Card 17023.9.3concept
Question

Is energy in an ecosystem recycled?

Answer

**No** — energy flows **one way** (sunlight → producers → consumers) and is steadily **lost as heat**; only nutrients are recycled.

Card 17033.9.3concept
Question

Why do food chains rarely exceed four or five links?

Answer

After several transfers **too little energy remains** to support another trophic level.

Card 17043.9.3concept
Question

Where does energy enter most ecosystems?

Answer

As **sunlight**, trapped by producers through **photosynthesis**.

Card 17053.9.3concept
Question

Which part of an organism's energy CAN be passed to the next level?

Answer

Only the energy built into its **biomass (body)** — and only the part that is actually **eaten**.

Card 17063.9.3concept
Question

Why is beef less energy-efficient to produce than chicken or plants?

Answer

Energy is lost at each trophic level, so the **extra transfer** (and cattle's poorer feed conversion) wastes more energy.

Card 17073.9.3concept
Question

Why are top predators rare in an ecosystem?

Answer

There is **very little energy** left at the top trophic level, so it can only support **a small number** of them.

Card 17083.9.4definition
Question

What is a persistent (non-biodegradable) pollutant?

Answer

A pollutant that is **not broken down** by enzymes or decomposers, so it stays in the environment and in organisms for a long time (e.g. DDT, mercury).

Card 17093.9.4definition
Question

Define bioaccumulation.

Answer

The **build-up of a pollutant inside a single organism** over time, because it is taken in faster than it can be broken down or excreted.

Card 17103.9.4definition
Question

Define biomagnification.

Answer

The **increase in a pollutant's concentration from one trophic level to the next**, so that it is highest in the top predator.

Card 17113.9.4concept
Question

Which two properties let a pollutant biomagnify?

Answer

It is **persistent (non-biodegradable)** and **not excreted** — so it is stored (often in fat) and passed on.

Card 17123.9.4concept
Question

Why is a persistent pollutant highest in the top predator?

Answer

Each consumer eats **many** contaminated prey and **stores all** their pollutant, so the concentration **multiplies at each trophic level**.

Card 17133.9.4concept
Question

In what direction does a persistent toxin change up a food chain?

Answer

It **increases** up the chain — the opposite of energy, which decreases.

Card 17143.9.4concept
Question

Why does the pollutant rise up the chain while energy falls?

Answer

The pollutant is **stored and passed on** (not used up or lost), whereas energy is lost as heat at each level.

Card 17153.9.4concept
Question

Give an example of a pollutant that biomagnifies.

Answer

**DDT** (a pesticide) or **methyl mercury** — both are persistent and stored, not excreted.

Card 17163.9.4concept
Question

What environmental effect did DDT have on birds of prey?

Answer

It biomagnified to high levels and caused **thin eggshells**, reducing breeding success and causing **population decline**.

Card 17173.9.4concept
Question

Where in the body are many biomagnifying pollutants stored?

Answer

In **fat (fatty tissue)**, because they are often **fat-soluble** — so they are not excreted.

Card 17183.9.4concept
Question

What is the difference in SCALE between bioaccumulation and biomagnification?

Answer

Bioaccumulation is **within one organism**; biomagnification is **between trophic levels** (up the chain).

Card 17193.9.4concept
Question

Why does naming 'biomagnification' alone lose marks on an 'explain' question?

Answer

It names the process but does not give the **cause-and-effect** — you must say it is stored and that each consumer eats many prey, so it multiplies up the chain.

Card 17203.9.5definition
Question

What is the carbon cycle?

Answer

The continuous **recycling of carbon** between the atmosphere, living organisms, the oceans and rocks — carbon is never made or destroyed.

Card 17213.9.5concept
Question

Which single process REMOVES CO₂ from the air?

Answer

**Photosynthesis** — producers fix CO₂ into organic carbon (glucose).

Card 17223.9.5concept
Question

Which three processes ADD CO₂ back to the air?

Answer

**Respiration, decomposition and combustion.**

Card 17233.9.5concept
Question

How does carbon move from producers to animals?

Answer

By **feeding** — organic carbon passes along the **food chain**.

Card 17243.9.5concept
Question

Which organisms carry out respiration?

Answer

**All living things** — producers, consumers and decomposers — releasing CO₂.

Card 17253.9.5concept
Question

What happens to carbon during decomposition?

Answer

Decomposers (bacteria, fungi) break down dead matter and **respire**, releasing the stored carbon as **CO₂**.

Card 17263.9.5definition
Question

What is combustion in the carbon cycle?

Answer

The **burning** of wood and fossil fuels, which releases their stored carbon as **CO₂**.

Card 17273.9.5concept
Question

How do aquatic autotrophs obtain their carbon?

Answer

From **dissolved CO₂ and hydrogencarbonate (HCO₃⁻) ions** in the water around them.

Card 17283.9.5concept
Question

How do land plants obtain their carbon?

Answer

As **CO₂ gas** taken directly from the air.

Card 17293.9.5definition
Question

What is a carbon sink? Give examples.

Answer

A store that **takes carbon out of the air** — e.g. forests, peat bogs, limestone, fossil fuels, the deep ocean.

Card 17303.9.5definition
Question

What is a carbon source? Give examples.

Answer

Something that **releases CO₂ into the air** — respiration, decomposition and combustion.

Card 17313.9.5concept
Question

What conditions lock carbon away in peat?

Answer

**Waterlogged, anaerobic (low-oxygen) and acidic** conditions slow decomposition, so carbon-rich material builds up.

Card 17323.9.5concept
Question

Why might atmospheric CO₂ rise?

Answer

When **combustion of fossil fuels** (a source) adds CO₂ **faster than photosynthesis** (the sink) can remove it.

Card 17333.9.5concept
Question

On a carbon-cycle diagram, which arrow removes CO₂?

Answer

The **photosynthesis** arrow — running from CO₂ in the air into living things.

Card 17343.9.6definition
Question

What is a decomposer?

Answer

An organism that feeds on **dead organic matter** and breaks it down, **releasing nutrients** back to the environment.

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Question

Name the two kinds of decomposer.

Answer

**Detritivores** and **saprotrophs**.

Card 17363.9.6definition
Question

What is a saprotroph, and how does it feed?

Answer

A decomposer (mostly **bacteria and fungi**) that **secretes enzymes onto** dead matter and **absorbs** the soluble products — it digests **externally**.

Card 17373.9.6definition
Question

What is a detritivore, and how does it feed?

Answer

An **animal** (e.g. earthworm, woodlouse) that **ingests** pieces of dead matter and digests them **internally**, in a gut.

Card 17383.9.6concept
Question

Give the key difference between a detritivore and a saprotroph.

Answer

**Where digestion happens**: a detritivore digests **internally** (it ingests); a saprotroph digests **externally** (it secretes enzymes and absorbs).

Card 17393.9.6concept
Question

What do detritivores and saprotrophs have in common?

Answer

Both are **decomposers** — they feed on **dead organic matter** and **recycle nutrients** back to the environment.

Card 17403.9.6concept
Question

What is the role of decomposers in an ecosystem? (2 marks)

Answer

They **break down dead organic matter** AND **release/recycle inorganic nutrients** to the soil for producers to reuse.

Card 17413.9.6definition
Question

What is nutrient cycling?

Answer

The repeated movement of nutrients (carbon, nitrogen, phosphorus) **between living organisms and the environment**, so the same atoms are **reused**.

Card 17423.9.6concept
Question

Why are decomposers essential to an ecosystem?

Answer

They **unlock the nutrients** trapped in dead matter; without them, nutrients would stay locked away and **producers would run out of raw materials**.

Card 17433.9.6concept
Question

On a nutrient-cycle diagram, what do the BOXES and ARROWS represent?

Answer

**Boxes = stores** of nutrients (soil, litter, biomass); **arrows = transfers** of nutrients between the stores.

Card 17443.9.6concept
Question

Name two processes that REDUCE the soil nutrient store.

Answer

**Uptake by plant roots** and **leaching** (nutrients washed out by water); also runoff/erosion.

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Question

Why is the litter-to-soil nutrient flow large in a tropical rainforest?

Answer

It is **warm and wet**, so **decomposers are very active** and break litter down **quickly**, releasing nutrients fast.

Card 17464.1.1definition
Question

What is DNA replication?

Answer

The process of copying a DNA molecule to make **two identical molecules**, done before a cell divides.

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Question

What does 'semi-conservative' replication mean?

Answer

Each new DNA molecule is made of **one original (parental) strand and one new strand**.

Card 17484.1.1concept
Question

Why does 'semi' (half) appear in the name?

Answer

Because **half** of each new molecule — one whole strand — is **conserved** from the original.

Card 17494.1.1definition
Question

What is a template strand?

Answer

An **old strand** used as a pattern to build a new complementary strand.

Card 17504.1.1concept
Question

How are new strands built against each template?

Answer

By **complementary base pairing** — A pairs with T, and C pairs with G.

Card 17514.1.1concept
Question

What does each daughter molecule contain after replication?

Answer

**One old (parental) strand and one new strand** — never two old or two new together.

Card 17524.1.1concept
Question

What were the three possible models of replication?

Answer

**Conservative**, **semi-conservative** and **dispersive**.

Card 17534.1.1concept
Question

How did Meselson and Stahl label the DNA?

Answer

They grew bacteria in **heavy ¹⁵N** (so all DNA was heavy), then switched them to **light ¹⁴N**.

Card 17544.1.1concept
Question

What did the single intermediate band in generation 1 show?

Answer

Every molecule was half-heavy and half-light (one old + one new strand) — this **ruled out the conservative model**.

Card 17554.1.1concept
Question

What did generation 2 (intermediate + light bands) show?

Answer

Some molecules were now fully light — this **ruled out the dispersive model**, leaving only semi-conservative.

Card 17564.1.1concept
Question

What conclusion did Meselson and Stahl reach?

Answer

That DNA replication is **semi-conservative**.

Card 17574.1.1concept
Question

On a Paper 1A diagram, how do you spot semi-conservative replication?

Answer

Each daughter molecule shows **one old (template) strand paired with one new strand**.

Card 17584.1.2definition
Question

What is DNA replication?

Answer

Copying a DNA molecule to make **two identical molecules**, each with **one old (template) strand and one new strand**.

Card 17594.1.2definition
Question

What does helicase do?

Answer

It **unwinds and unzips** the double helix by **breaking the hydrogen bonds** between the paired bases.

Card 17604.1.2concept
Question

Which bonds does helicase break?

Answer

The **hydrogen bonds** between the paired bases (A–T, G–C) that hold the two strands together.

Card 17614.1.2definition
Question

What is the role of DNA polymerase?

Answer

It **adds complementary nucleotides** to a template strand, **building the new strand** and joining the nucleotides with covalent bonds.

Card 17624.1.2concept
Question

Which bonds does DNA polymerase form?

Answer

**Covalent bonds** that join the nucleotides along the sugar-phosphate backbone of the new strand.

Card 17634.1.2concept
Question

In which direction does DNA polymerase build the new strand?

Answer

In the **5'->3' direction** — it adds new nucleotides only to the 3' end of the growing strand.

Card 17644.1.2concept
Question

Which enzyme works first, helicase or DNA polymerase?

Answer

**Helicase** works first to open the helix; **DNA polymerase** follows to build the new strands.

Card 17654.1.2definition
Question

What is a template strand?

Answer

An original (parental) strand whose base sequence is **read** to decide which nucleotides go into the new strand.

Card 17664.1.2concept
Question

What rule decides which nucleotide is added to the new strand?

Answer

**Complementary base pairing**: A pairs with T, and G pairs with C.

Card 17674.1.2concept
Question

Helicase breaks bonds — which kind, and where?

Answer

**Hydrogen** bonds, **between** the two strands (between the paired bases).

Card 17684.1.2concept
Question

DNA polymerase forms bonds — which kind, and where?

Answer

**Covalent** bonds, **along** a strand (the sugar-phosphate backbone of the new strand).

Card 17694.1.2concept
Question

Why is replication called 'semi-conservative'?

Answer

Because each new DNA molecule keeps **one old strand and one new strand** — half of the original is conserved.

Card 17704.1.3definition
Question

What does PCR (the polymerase chain reaction) do?

Answer

It **amplifies** DNA — makes **many copies** of a chosen piece of DNA from a tiny sample.

Card 17714.1.3concept
Question

Roughly how much does the DNA increase each PCR cycle?

Answer

It roughly **doubles** every cycle, so the increase is **exponential** (about a billion copies after ~30 cycles).

Card 17724.1.3concept
Question

Name the three steps of one PCR cycle, in order.

Answer

**Denaturation → annealing → extension.**

Card 17734.1.3concept
Question

Why is PCR heated to ~95 °C (denaturation)?

Answer

The high heat **breaks the hydrogen bonds**, separating the double helix into **two single strands**.

Card 17744.1.3concept
Question

What happens at the annealing step (~55 °C)?

Answer

**Primers bind (anneal)** to their matching sequence on each single strand, marking where copying begins.

Card 17754.1.3concept
Question

What happens at the extension step (~72 °C)?

Answer

**Taq polymerase** adds **nucleotides** to each primer to build a new **complementary strand** (72 °C is its optimum).

Card 17764.1.3definition
Question

What is a primer?

Answer

A **short single strand of DNA** that binds to a matching sequence and marks where copying should start.

Card 17774.1.3concept
Question

Why is Taq polymerase used in PCR?

Answer

It is **heat-stable (thermostable)** — it is **not denatured** by the ~95 °C step, so the same enzyme works every cycle.

Card 17784.1.3concept
Question

Where does Taq polymerase come from?

Answer

From **Thermus aquaticus**, a bacterium that lives in **hot springs**, so its enzymes tolerate high temperatures.

Card 17794.1.3definition
Question

What does gel electrophoresis do?

Answer

It **separates DNA fragments by size** so they can be seen and compared as a pattern of **bands**.

Card 17804.1.3concept
Question

In gel electrophoresis, which fragments travel furthest?

Answer

The **smaller** fragments — they slip through the gel sieve more easily. (Small = far.)

Card 17814.1.3concept
Question

Why does DNA move towards the positive electrode in a gel?

Answer

Because DNA is **negatively charged**, so the electric field pulls it towards the **positive electrode**.

Card 17824.1.3concept
Question

On a PCR gel, what does the no-DNA control lane look like, and why?

Answer

It shows **no band** — with no template DNA there is nothing to amplify (it checks for contamination).

Card 17834.1.3concept
Question

Predict the gel result if fewer PCR cycles are run.

Answer

**Fainter bands** — fewer cycles means **less DNA is made** (the amount roughly doubles each cycle).

Card 17844.1.4definition
Question

What is the genome?

Answer

The **whole of an organism's genetic information** — **all** of its DNA, every gene and every base.

Card 17854.1.4concept
Question

Put these in order, smallest to largest: gene, base, genome, chromosome.

Answer

**base ⊂ gene ⊂ chromosome ⊂ genome** — a base in a gene, a gene in a chromosome, all chromosomes make the genome.

Card 17864.1.4concept
Question

Is the genome one gene or all of the DNA?

Answer

**All** of the DNA — the genome is the complete set, not a single gene or chromosome.

Card 17874.1.4concept
Question

Which cells contain a complete copy of the genome?

Answer

**Every nucleated body cell** carries a complete copy of the whole genome.

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Question

Why can't a mature red blood cell supply the genome?

Answer

It has **no nucleus**, so it carries no DNA to copy.

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Question

What is DNA profiling?

Answer

A technique that reads the **variable repeated regions** of the genome to **identify an individual** or test how closely two people are **related**.

Card 17904.1.4concept
Question

Why does DNA profiling avoid the coding genes?

Answer

The genes are almost **identical** between people, so they cannot tell individuals apart — the **variable repeats** can.

Card 17914.1.4concept
Question

What part of the genome does a DNA profile compare?

Answer

The **number of short tandem repeats** (variable, non-coding regions) at several places in the genome.

Card 17924.1.4concept
Question

Two DNA profiles share many repeat patterns. What does that suggest?

Answer

The two individuals are **closely related** — more shared patterns means a closer relationship.

Card 17934.1.4concept
Question

Does a larger genome mean a more complex organism?

Answer

**No** — genome size does **not** correlate with complexity; some simpler organisms have larger genomes than humans.

Card 17944.1.4definition
Question

Define a gene (versus the genome).

Answer

A **gene** is one length of DNA coding for a product; the **genome** is **all** of the DNA, containing thousands of genes.

Card 17954.1.4concept
Question

Why is a small sample enough for DNA profiling?

Answer

Because **every nucleated cell** holds the whole genome, so even a single cell carries all of a person's DNA.

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Question

What is variation?

Answer

The **differences** that exist between **individuals of the same species**.

Card 17974.10.1concept
Question

Which kind of variation is the raw material for evolution?

Answer

**Heritable** variation — differences caused by **alleles** that can be passed to offspring.

Card 17984.10.1concept
Question

What are the three sources of heritable variation?

Answer

**Mutation**, **meiosis** (crossing over + independent assortment) and **random fertilisation**.

Card 17994.10.1definition
Question

What is a mutation?

Answer

A **random change in the DNA base sequence** — the only source of brand-new alleles.

Card 18004.10.1concept
Question

Which source makes NEW alleles, and which only SHUFFLE existing ones?

Answer

**Mutation** makes new alleles. **Meiosis** and **random fertilisation** shuffle existing alleles into new combinations.

Card 18014.10.1concept
Question

How does sexual reproduction increase variation?

Answer

It produces **new combinations** of **existing alleles** (via meiosis and random fertilisation) — not new alleles.

Card 18024.10.1concept
Question

Why is only germ-line (gamete) variation heritable?

Answer

Only mutations in **gametes / gamete-forming cells** are **passed to offspring**; somatic (body-cell) mutations are not.

Card 18034.10.1concept
Question

Are most mutations beneficial?

Answer

No — most are **neutral or harmful**; only **occasionally** is one beneficial in a given environment.

Card 18044.10.1concept
Question

Why is mutation called the 'ultimate source' of variation?

Answer

It is the **only** process that creates **genuinely new alleles**; everything else just re-combines existing ones.

Card 18054.10.1concept
Question

Distinguish continuous and discontinuous variation.

Answer

**Continuous** = a smooth range (e.g. height), often many genes + environment. **Discontinuous** = distinct categories (e.g. blood group), usually one/few genes.

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Question

Define natural selection.

Answer

The process where individuals with **advantageous heritable variations survive and reproduce more**, so the advantageous **allele becomes more common** over generations.

Card 18074.10.2concept
Question

What is the RESULT of natural selection?

Answer

A **change in allele frequency** in the **population** over generations — the helpful allele becomes more common and the population becomes better adapted.

Card 18084.10.2concept
Question

Does a single individual evolve during its lifetime?

Answer

**No** — an individual keeps the alleles it was born with. The **population** changes over generations, not the individual.

Card 18094.10.2concept
Question

What does 'survival of the fittest' actually mean?

Answer

Best able to **survive AND reproduce** — the individual that leaves the **most offspring**. Not necessarily the strongest or fastest.

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Question

Why must the variation be heritable?

Answer

Only **allele-based** variation can be **passed to offspring**, so only it can change in frequency over generations.

Card 18114.10.2definition
Question

What is a selection pressure? Give examples.

Answer

An environmental factor that affects which variants survive — e.g. a **predator, disease, climate, or food shortage**.

Card 18124.10.2concept
Question

List the steps of the natural-selection mechanism.

Answer

Variation → overproduction/struggle → selection pressure → differential survival → differential reproduction → **allele frequency rises** over generations.

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Question

Why does overproduction matter for natural selection?

Answer

More offspring are produced than can survive, creating a **struggle to survive** — so survival is unequal and selection can act.

Card 18144.10.3definition
Question

What is a selection pressure?

Answer

Any environmental factor that affects an organism's chance of **surviving and reproducing**, so it decides which traits are favoured.

Card 18154.10.3concept
Question

What is an abiotic selection pressure? Give examples.

Answer

A **non-living** factor — e.g. **temperature, drought, salinity, light, pH**.

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Question

What is a biotic selection pressure? Give examples.

Answer

A pressure from **other organisms** — e.g. **predators, parasites/disease, competition** for food or mates.

Card 18174.10.3definition
Question

What is sexual selection?

Answer

Selection for traits that raise **mating success** (getting a mate) rather than survival.

Card 18184.10.3concept
Question

Name the two routes of sexual selection.

Answer

**Mate choice (intersexual)** — one sex chooses showy partners; and **mate competition (intrasexual)** — members of one sex fight for mates.

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Question

What kind of trait does sexual selection produce?

Answer

Showy or costly mating traits — **bright plumage, antlers, horns, large size, courtship displays**.

Card 18204.10.3concept
Question

Why does a costly trait like a peacock's tail spread despite lowering survival?

Answer

The **gain in mating success outweighs the survival cost**, so males with it father more offspring.

Card 18214.10.3concept
Question

What does the command term 'Evaluate' require?

Answer

Weigh a point **for** and a point **against**, then reach a **balanced judgement** — not a simple yes/no.

Card 18224.10.3concept
Question

Is competition for mates an abiotic or biotic pressure?

Answer

**Biotic** — it involves other living organisms (rivals and potential mates).

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Question

In natural selection, where does the variation come from — before or after the selection pressure?

Answer

**Before.** Variation (often from a **random mutation**) already exists; the pressure only **selects** which variants survive — it never **creates** the trait.

Card 18244.10.4concept
Question

Outline how bacteria become resistant to an antibiotic.

Answer

A **random mutation** makes a resistant variant; the antibiotic **kills the susceptible** bacteria; the **resistant survive and reproduce** (incl. via **plasmids**); so the **resistance allele becomes common**.

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Question

Why do resistant weeds increase as herbicide use rises?

Answer

The herbicide is a **selection pressure** — it kills non-resistant weeds, so the rare **resistant** variant survives and reproduces, and its frequency **rises as spraying continues**.

Card 18264.10.4definition
Question

What is heterozygote advantage?

Answer

When the **heterozygote** has **higher fitness** than either homozygote, so **both alleles are kept** in the population (balancing selection).

Card 18274.10.4concept
Question

Explain why the sickle-cell allele persists in malaria regions.

Answer

**Carriers** (heterozygotes) are **more resistant to malaria** and avoid severe anaemia, so they are the **fittest** and reproduce most — keeping the sickle allele at **moderate frequency**.

Card 18284.10.4concept
Question

What did Endler's guppy experiments demonstrate?

Answer

Natural selection in **real time**: **predation** favours dull, camouflaged males while **sexual selection** favours bright males, so colouration **shifts in a few generations**.

Card 18294.10.4concept
Question

State the four steps common to every case of natural selection in action.

Answer

**Variation** → a **selection pressure** removes some variants → favoured variants **survive and reproduce** → the helpful **allele becomes more common** over generations.

Card 18304.11.1definition
Question

What is a stable ecosystem?

Answer

One that **stays roughly the same over time** and **returns to balance after a disturbance**.

Card 18314.11.1concept
Question

Why is stability called an 'emergent property'?

Answer

It belongs to the **whole ecosystem working together**, not to any single organism — it emerges only at the level of the whole system.

Card 18324.11.1definition
Question

What is resilience (of an ecosystem)?

Answer

The ability to **recover and return to its normal state** after a disturbance.

Card 18334.11.1concept
Question

List the four requirements for a stable ecosystem.

Answer

**1)** a continuous supply of energy, **2)** recycling of nutrients, **3)** genetic diversity within populations, **4)** steady climatic/abiotic variables.

Card 18344.11.1concept
Question

Why must energy be continuously supplied to an ecosystem?

Answer

Energy is **lost as heat** at each trophic level and **cannot be recycled**, so it must keep coming in (as sunlight).

Card 18354.11.1concept
Question

Why are nutrients recycled rather than constantly resupplied?

Answer

The chemical elements (C, N, P) are **finite**, so **decomposers return them** to the soil/water for producers to reuse.

Card 18364.11.1concept
Question

Why does genetic diversity help keep an ecosystem stable?

Answer

Variation means **some individuals survive** a new disease or stress, so a whole population is **not wiped out** by one change.

Card 18374.11.1concept
Question

Why does high biodiversity make an ecosystem more resilient?

Answer

Species have **overlapping roles**, so if one is lost **another can fill the role** — the web is not broken and the ecosystem returns to balance.

Card 18384.11.1concept
Question

In one line: how do energy and nutrients move through an ecosystem?

Answer

**Energy flows through** (lost as heat); **matter/nutrients cycle round** (recycled).

Card 18394.11.2definition
Question

What is a disturbance in an ecosystem?

Answer

Any event that knocks an ecosystem out of its steady state — e.g. **fertiliser run-off, wildfire, or pollution**.

Card 18404.11.2definition
Question

What is a tipping point?

Answer

A threshold beyond which a disturbance causes a **self-reinforcing change** that flips the ecosystem into a **new stable state** it cannot easily recover from.

Card 18414.11.2concept
Question

Deflection vs tipping — what is the difference?

Answer

A **deflection** is recoverable (the system bounces back); past a **tipping point** the change feeds itself and the system settles in a new state.

Card 18424.11.2definition
Question

What is eutrophication?

Answer

The over-enrichment of water with **nitrate and phosphate** (often from fertiliser run-off), causing an **algal bloom** and then a fall in dissolved oxygen.

Card 18434.11.2concept
Question

Predict what happens when fertiliser leaches into a lake.

Answer

**Algal bloom** → light blocked, plants die → **decomposers respire** and use up the oxygen (high **BOD**) → **fish die**.

Card 18444.11.2definition
Question

What does a high BOD mean?

Answer

That **decomposers are using up a lot of dissolved oxygen** breaking down dead organic matter, leaving little for fish and other aerobic organisms.

Card 18454.11.2concept
Question

How does a wildfire raise the risk of soil erosion?

Answer

It removes the **vegetation and roots** that bind the soil; the **bare soil** is then **washed away by rain and blown away by wind**.

Card 18464.11.2concept
Question

In eutrophication, why does the oxygen fall?

Answer

Because **decomposers multiply and respire aerobically** as they break down the dead algae and plants (high BOD) — not because the algae 'use it up'.

Card 18474.11.3definition
Question

What does 'sustainability' mean for harvesting a resource?

Answer

Using it so it lasts indefinitely — taking **no more than is naturally replaced**, so the stock is not depleted.

Card 18484.11.3concept
Question

When is a harvest unsustainable?

Answer

When **more is removed than is replaced** each year — the stock declines and can **collapse**.

Card 18494.11.3definition
Question

What is a mesocosm?

Answer

A **small, enclosed experimental ecosystem** (e.g. a sealed tank or fenced plot) used to study how an ecosystem behaves.

Card 18504.11.3concept
Question

Give one strength and one limitation of a mesocosm.

Answer

Strength: **controlled, cheap, repeatable and safe/ethical**. Limitation: **small and simplified**, so it may not match a real ecosystem.

Card 18514.11.3definition
Question

Define biomagnification.

Answer

The **increase in a persistent pollutant's concentration at each higher trophic level** of a food chain.

Card 18524.11.3concept
Question

Why does a pollutant biomagnify up a food chain?

Answer

It is **persistent** (not broken down or excreted), and each predator **eats many prey**, so it keeps all of their pollutant and the concentration multiplies up the chain.

Card 18534.11.3concept
Question

Which organism is worst affected by biomagnification?

Answer

The **top predator** — it has the **highest** concentration of the pollutant.

Card 18544.11.3concept
Question

How is biomagnification different from bioaccumulation?

Answer

**Bioaccumulation** = build-up within **one organism** over its life. **Biomagnification** = increase **up the food chain**, level by level.

Card 18554.11.4definition
Question

Define phenotypic plasticity.

Answer

The ability of **one genotype** to produce **different phenotypes** in response to **different environments**, within an individual's lifetime.

Card 18564.11.4concept
Question

Does the genotype change in phenotypic plasticity?

Answer

**No.** The DNA stays the same — only the **environment** changes how the genes are expressed.

Card 18574.11.4concept
Question

Is a plastic (phenotypic) change inherited?

Answer

**No** — it happens within one individual's lifetime and is **not passed on** to offspring.

Card 18584.11.4concept
Question

How is phenotypic plasticity different from natural selection?

Answer

Natural selection changes **alleles in a population over generations** (heritable). Plasticity changes the **phenotype of one individual** because of its **environment** (not heritable).

Card 18594.11.4concept
Question

Give an example of phenotypic plasticity.

Answer

A moth species reared at different **temperatures** develops different **wing colours** despite the **same genotype** (or: an Arctic hare's white winter / brown summer coat).

Card 18604.11.4concept
Question

In one line, what should a plasticity answer always say?

Answer

**Same genotype → different phenotype, caused by the environment.**

Card 18614.11.5concept
Question

What was Earth's early atmosphere like?

Answer

**Almost no free oxygen** and a **high level of carbon dioxide** (a 'reducing' atmosphere).

Card 18624.11.5concept
Question

What two main changes did living organisms cause to the atmosphere?

Answer

**Oxygen rose** (to ~21%) and **carbon dioxide fell** (to a low level).

Card 18634.11.5concept
Question

Which process raised atmospheric oxygen?

Answer

**Photosynthesis** — it releases oxygen as a waste product.

Card 18644.11.5concept
Question

Which organisms first added oxygen to the air?

Answer

**Cyanobacteria**, then later **algae and plants**.

Card 18654.11.5definition
Question

What is the Great Oxidation Event?

Answer

The time, billions of years ago, when **oxygen from photosynthesis built up** in the atmosphere for the first time.

Card 18664.11.5concept
Question

Why did carbon dioxide fall over geological time?

Answer

**Photosynthesis fixed CO₂** into organic carbon, which was then **buried as fossil fuels** or **locked in limestone**.

Card 18674.11.5concept
Question

Where was the removed carbon stored?

Answer

In **fossil fuels** (coal, oil, gas) and in **limestone** (carbonate from marine shells).

Card 18684.11.5concept
Question

Why did the rise in oxygen matter for life?

Answer

It enabled efficient **aerobic respiration** and formed the **ozone layer**, making **complex life** and life on land possible.

Card 18694.12.1definition
Question

What is a greenhouse gas?

Answer

An atmospheric gas that **absorbs longwave (infrared) radiation** and re-radiates heat, warming the atmosphere — e.g. **CO₂, methane, water vapour**.

Card 18704.12.1definition
Question

What is the greenhouse effect?

Answer

The warming of the atmosphere when **greenhouse gases absorb longwave infrared** radiation that would otherwise escape to space.

Card 18714.12.1definition
Question

What is the enhanced greenhouse effect?

Answer

The **extra warming** caused when humans add **more greenhouse gases** (mainly CO₂) to the atmosphere.

Card 18724.12.1concept
Question

Name the three greenhouse gases you must know.

Answer

**Carbon dioxide (CO₂)**, **methane (CH₄)** and **water vapour**.

Card 18734.12.1concept
Question

Which gas is the main contributor to the ENHANCED greenhouse effect?

Answer

**Carbon dioxide (CO₂)** — mainly from burning fossil fuels.

Card 18744.12.1concept
Question

Which type of radiation do greenhouse gases absorb?

Answer

**Longwave infrared** radiation (the heat re-radiated by the warm Earth) — not incoming visible light.

Card 18754.12.1concept
Question

Why does sunlight still warm the surface if greenhouse gases trap heat?

Answer

Incoming **shortwave** sunlight **passes through** the gases to warm the surface; only the **outgoing longwave infrared** is absorbed.

Card 18764.12.1concept
Question

Give two reasons methane contributes to the greenhouse effect.

Answer

(1) It **absorbs longwave infrared** radiation; (2) per molecule it is a **stronger absorber than CO₂**.

Card 18774.12.1concept
Question

What is the main human source of extra CO₂?

Answer

**Burning fossil fuels** (coal, oil and gas); deforestation also contributes.

Card 18784.12.1concept
Question

How do you explain a positive correlation between CO₂ and temperature on a graph?

Answer

As CO₂ rises, **more longwave infrared is absorbed**, so **less heat escapes** and **temperature rises** — both lines climb together.

Card 18794.12.1concept
Question

Is the natural greenhouse effect harmful?

Answer

No — it keeps Earth **warm enough for life**. Global warming comes from the **enhanced** effect (extra human-added gases).

Card 18804.12.2definition
Question

What does 'anthropogenic' mean?

Answer

**Caused by human activity** (rather than by natural processes).

Card 18814.12.2concept
Question

Name the four main human activities that raise atmospheric CO₂.

Answer

**Burning fossil fuels**, **deforestation**, **agriculture**, and **cattle farming**. (Hook: FDAC.)

Card 18824.12.2concept
Question

Which human activity adds the MOST CO₂?

Answer

**Burning fossil fuels** — it releases carbon stored in coal, oil and gas for millions of years.

Card 18834.12.2definition
Question

What is a carbon sink vs a carbon source?

Answer

A **sink** removes CO₂ from the air (photosynthesis); a **source** adds CO₂ (respiration, decomposition, combustion).

Card 18844.12.2concept
Question

Why does deforestation count as a 'double hit'?

Answer

It **removes a sink** (fewer trees photosynthesising) AND **releases** the stored carbon when the wood is burnt or rots.

Card 18854.12.2concept
Question

Which action reduces carbon sequestration?

Answer

**Deforestation / clearing forest** — it stops trees locking carbon away by photosynthesis.

Card 18864.12.2concept
Question

How does cattle farming warm the climate?

Answer

Cattle release **methane** (a potent greenhouse gas) from digestion, and clearing forest for pasture **removes a sink** and releases CO₂.

Card 18874.12.2concept
Question

Why does atmospheric CO₂ rise each winter?

Answer

Most plants **stop photosynthesising**, but **respiration and decomposition continue**, so CO₂ is added faster than it is removed.

Card 18884.12.2concept
Question

On a CO₂ graph, what causes the long-term rise vs the yearly zig-zag?

Answer

Long-term **rise** = human activity (mainly fossil fuels); yearly **zig-zag** = photosynthesis (down in summer) vs respiration/decomposition (up in winter).

Card 18894.12.3definition
Question

What is a positive feedback loop?

Answer

A loop where the **effect makes the original change even bigger** — it is **self-amplifying**.

Card 18904.12.3definition
Question

What is a negative feedback loop?

Answer

A loop where the **effect opposes the change**, returning the system **toward balance** (self-correcting).

Card 18914.12.3concept
Question

Does 'positive' feedback mean the effect is good?

Answer

**No.** 'Positive' means the change is **amplified** — a positive climate feedback loop is **harmful** (more warming).

Card 18924.12.3concept
Question

Trace the ice–albedo positive feedback loop.

Answer

Warming **melts bright ice** → exposes a **darker, lower-albedo surface** → it **absorbs more heat** → **more warming** → **more melting**.

Card 18934.12.3concept
Question

How does thawing permafrost amplify warming?

Answer

It **releases trapped methane and CO2** (greenhouse gases) → these **trap more heat** → more warming → **more thaw**.

Card 18944.12.3concept
Question

How does a warming ocean amplify warming?

Answer

Warm water **holds less dissolved CO2**, so CO2 is **released to the air**, trapping more heat → the ocean warms further.

Card 18954.12.3definition
Question

What is albedo?

Answer

How much sunlight a surface **reflects**. Bright ice = **high** albedo (reflects); dark sea/land = **low** albedo (absorbs).

Card 18964.12.3definition
Question

What is a tipping point?

Answer

A **threshold** past which change becomes **self-sustaining and irreversible** — runaway warming.

Card 18974.12.3concept
Question

Name three positive climate feedback loops.

Answer

**Ice–albedo**, **permafrost methane** release, and **ocean CO2 release**.

Card 18984.12.3concept
Question

How can you tell a process is positive feedback?

Answer

Finish the sentence: '…and that causes **MORE** warming.' If it adds to the change, it is **positive** feedback.

Card 18994.12.4concept
Question

Name the three main consequence-threads of climate-change warming for living things.

Answer

**Distribution** (where species live), **ecosystem / community** change (who lives together) and **phenology** (when events happen).

Card 19004.12.4definition
Question

Define phenology.

Answer

The **timing of seasonal life-cycle events** — such as budburst, flowering, breeding and migration.

Card 19014.12.4concept
Question

In which direction do species' ranges tend to shift as the climate warms?

Answer

**Poleward** (towards the poles) and to **higher altitude**, following the cooler conditions they can tolerate.

Card 19024.12.4concept
Question

Predict the effect of shifting hardiness zones on a tree species.

Answer

The tree **spreads northwards / poleward** (and uphill) into newly-suitable ground, because the band of climate it can survive in has moved that way.

Card 19034.12.4concept
Question

How does warming change the community structure of an ecosystem?

Answer

**Warm-tolerant species are favoured and spread; cold-adapted species decline or are lost** — so the mix and abundance of species changes.

Card 19044.12.4concept
Question

What is a phenological (trophic) mismatch?

Answer

When a consumer and its food respond to **different cues**, warming shifts their timing by different amounts, so they fall **out of step** (e.g. caterpillars peak before chicks hatch).

Card 19054.12.4concept
Question

Why does a migrating bird often fail to track an earlier spring?

Answer

It responds to **day length**, which warming does **not** change, so it arrives on the same date while its temperature-cued food has already shifted earlier.

Card 19064.12.4concept
Question

Give one effect of warming on a freshwater ecosystem besides species range.

Answer

Warmer water holds **less dissolved oxygen**, stressing oxygen-demanding species and favouring warm-tolerant ones.

Card 19074.12.5definition
Question

Define ocean acidification.

Answer

The fall in **seawater pH** caused by the ocean absorbing extra atmospheric **CO₂**, which dissolves to form carbonic acid.

Card 19084.12.5concept
Question

Why does dissolving CO₂ lower the ocean's pH?

Answer

Dissolved CO₂ forms **carbonic acid**, which releases **H⁺ ions** — more H⁺ means a lower (more acidic) pH.

Card 19094.12.5concept
Question

What happens to carbonate ions as the ocean acidifies?

Answer

There are **fewer carbonate ions (CO₃²⁻)** available, because the extra H⁺ ions react with them.

Card 19104.12.5concept
Question

Which organisms are most harmed by acidification, and why?

Answer

**Calcifying organisms** — corals, molluscs and some plankton — because they need carbonate ions to build **calcium carbonate** shells and skeletons.

Card 19114.12.5concept
Question

How does acidification affect coral skeletons?

Answer

Corals build their **calcium carbonate** skeletons **more slowly**, and existing skeletons can **dissolve**, so reefs weaken.

Card 19124.12.5concept
Question

How does acidification alter a coral reef ecosystem?

Answer

Weaker reefs provide **less habitat and shelter**, so **biodiversity falls** and fisheries that depend on reefs decline.

Card 19134.12.5concept
Question

Name the main human causes of the extra atmospheric CO₂.

Answer

Burning **fossil fuels** and **deforestation** (which removes a CO₂ sink).

Card 19144.12.5concept
Question

State the acidification chain in order.

Answer

More CO₂ → dissolves → **carbonic acid** → lower **pH** → fewer **carbonate ions** → slower/dissolving **calcium carbonate**.

Card 19154.12.6definition
Question

What does mitigation of climate change mean?

Answer

**Reducing the cause** — lowering greenhouse-gas emissions or **removing CO₂** from the atmosphere.

Card 19164.12.6concept
Question

How is adaptation different from mitigation?

Answer

**Adaptation copes with the effects** of warming (e.g. sea walls) and does **not lower CO₂**; **mitigation reduces the cause**.

Card 19174.12.6concept
Question

How does renewable energy mitigate climate change?

Answer

Solar, wind and hydro generate energy **without burning fossil fuels**, so **less CO₂ is added** to the atmosphere.

Card 19184.12.6definition
Question

What is a carbon sink? Give examples.

Answer

A store that **removes more CO₂ than it releases** — **forests, peatlands, soils and oceans**.

Card 19194.12.6concept
Question

Why does protecting forests help mitigate climate change?

Answer

Living trees **remove CO₂ by photosynthesis** (sequestration) and **store carbon in wood/soil**, keeping it out of the air.

Card 19204.12.6concept
Question

Why is deforestation doubly harmful?

Answer

It **removes a carbon sink** (less CO₂ removed) AND **releases stored carbon** when trees are burned or rot.

Card 19214.12.6concept
Question

Name one way to mitigate climate change other than energy and forests.

Answer

**Cut methane** (fewer cattle, better landfill) or use **carbon capture and storage (CCS)**.

Card 19224.12.6concept
Question

Is building a sea wall mitigation or adaptation?

Answer

**Adaptation** — it copes with an effect (rising sea level) and does **not lower CO₂**.

Card 19234.2.1definition
Question

What is transcription?

Answer

The copying of a gene's DNA base sequence into a complementary molecule of **mRNA**. It happens in the **nucleus**.

Card 19244.2.1concept
Question

Which enzyme carries out transcription?

Answer

**RNA polymerase** — it unwinds the DNA and joins RNA nucleotides into mRNA.

Card 19254.2.1concept
Question

Where does transcription take place?

Answer

In the **nucleus** (where the DNA is).

Card 19264.2.1definition
Question

What is mRNA?

Answer

A single-stranded copy of a gene that carries its base sequence **out of the nucleus to a ribosome** to be translated.

Card 19274.2.1concept
Question

How many DNA strands are copied during transcription?

Answer

**One** — only the **template strand** is read and copied.

Card 19284.2.1concept
Question

In mRNA, which base pairs with adenine (A) on the DNA template?

Answer

**Uracil (U)** — RNA has no thymine.

Card 19294.2.1concept
Question

What are the base-pairing rules in transcription?

Answer

Template **A → U**, template **T → A**, template **C → G**, template **G → C**.

Card 19304.2.1concept
Question

Why does mRNA use uracil instead of thymine?

Answer

RNA contains **uracil (U)** in place of thymine; so a template adenine is copied as **U**, never T.

Card 19314.2.1concept
Question

Why is mRNA important in protein synthesis?

Answer

It **carries the gene's code out of the nucleus to a ribosome**, where it is translated into a polypeptide.

Card 19324.2.1concept
Question

What does RNA polymerase do, step by step?

Answer

Binds the gene, **unwinds** the DNA, reads **one template strand**, pairs and **joins free RNA nucleotides** into mRNA.

Card 19334.2.1concept
Question

Match the enzymes: which makes mRNA and which copies DNA?

Answer

**RNA polymerase** → transcription (mRNA); **DNA polymerase** → DNA replication.

Card 19344.2.1concept
Question

A drug blocks RNA polymerase. What happens to protein synthesis?

Answer

**No mRNA is made**, so there is nothing for the ribosome to translate — the protein cannot be built.

Card 19354.2.2definition
Question

What is a codon?

Answer

A group of **three** consecutive bases on mRNA that codes for **one amino acid** (or a start/stop signal).

Card 19364.2.2concept
Question

How many bases are read at a time when decoding mRNA?

Answer

**Three** — the genetic code is a **triplet** code, read in non-overlapping groups of three.

Card 19374.2.2definition
Question

What is the genetic code?

Answer

The set of rules linking each mRNA **codon** to the **amino acid** it specifies; it is nearly the same in all living things.

Card 19384.2.2concept
Question

How many possible codons are there, and why?

Answer

**64** — there are 4 bases and codons are 3 bases long, so **4 × 4 × 4 = 64**. This covers 20 amino acids plus start/stop.

Card 19394.2.2concept
Question

What does it mean that the genetic code is universal?

Answer

Almost **all organisms** use the **same codons** for the same amino acids.

Card 19404.2.2concept
Question

Why does universality make genetic engineering possible?

Answer

Because the code is shared, a gene from one species can be **read correctly** by another (e.g. a human gene placed in bacteria).

Card 19414.2.2definition
Question

What does it mean that the genetic code is degenerate (redundant)?

Answer

**More than one codon** can code for the **same amino acid** (e.g. UUU and UUC both code for phenylalanine).

Card 19424.2.2concept
Question

Give an example of degeneracy.

Answer

**UUU and UUC** both code for **phenylalanine**; **UCU and UCC** both code for **serine**.

Card 19434.2.2definition
Question

What is a silent mutation?

Answer

A base substitution that changes a codon to another codon for the **same amino acid**, so the **protein is unchanged**.

Card 19444.2.2concept
Question

How does degeneracy allow silent mutations?

Answer

Because several codons code for the same amino acid, a base change can give a different codon that still specifies the **same** amino acid.

Card 19454.2.2concept
Question

How do you read an mRNA sequence using a codon table?

Answer

**Split it into non-overlapping threes**, look up each codon in turn, and keep the amino acids in **order**.

Card 19464.2.2concept
Question

What is the difference between 'universal' and 'degenerate'?

Answer

**Universal** = the same code in all organisms (between species); **degenerate** = several codons for one amino acid (within the code).

Card 19474.2.3definition
Question

What is translation?

Answer

The process where a **ribosome** reads an **mRNA** and builds the matching chain of amino acids (a **polypeptide**).

Card 19484.2.3concept
Question

Where does translation take place?

Answer

At a **ribosome** (in the cytoplasm).

Card 19494.2.3definition
Question

What is a codon?

Answer

A group of **three mRNA bases** that codes for **one amino acid** (or a stop signal).

Card 19504.2.3concept
Question

How many bases are read for each amino acid?

Answer

**Three** — the mRNA is read one **codon** (3 bases) at a time.

Card 19514.2.3concept
Question

What is the job of a tRNA?

Answer

It **brings the correct amino acid** to the ribosome; its **anticodon** base-pairs with the mRNA codon.

Card 19524.2.3definition
Question

What is an anticodon?

Answer

The **three bases on a tRNA** that base-pair with a complementary **codon** on the mRNA.

Card 19534.2.3concept
Question

How is the correct amino acid placed in the right position?

Answer

Each tRNA **anticodon** pairs with the matching **codon**, and each tRNA carries only **one specific amino acid**.

Card 19544.2.3concept
Question

What bond joins amino acids in the polypeptide?

Answer

A **peptide bond**, formed by the ribosome as each amino acid is added.

Card 19554.2.3concept
Question

What ends translation?

Answer

A **stop codon** — no tRNA matches it, so no more amino acids are added and the polypeptide is released.

Card 19564.2.3concept
Question

How do you find the number of mRNA bases from the number of amino acids?

Answer

**Bases = amino acids × 3** (three bases per codon); add 3 more for the stop codon.

Card 19574.2.3concept
Question

How many mRNA bases code for a 30-amino-acid polypeptide?

Answer

30 × 3 = **90 bases** (93 if the stop codon is counted).

Card 19584.2.3concept
Question

Why do polypeptides on the same mRNA differ in length?

Answer

They are caught **part-way through synthesis**; ribosomes further along the mRNA have added **more amino acids**, so their chains are longer.

Card 19594.2.3concept
Question

Which step is translation: transcription or making the polypeptide?

Answer

Translation is **making the polypeptide** at the ribosome. Transcription is making the **mRNA** in the nucleus.

Card 19604.2.3definition
Question

What is a polypeptide?

Answer

The **chain of amino acids** produced by translation, which folds up to form a **protein**.

Card 19614.3.1definition
Question

What is a mutation?

Answer

A **random change to the base sequence of DNA**.

Card 19624.3.1concept
Question

Why are mutations important for variation?

Answer

They are the **source of new alleles** — the ultimate origin of all genetic variation.

Card 19634.3.1concept
Question

How does a mutation create a new allele?

Answer

By **changing the base sequence** of an existing gene, producing a new version (allele) of it.

Card 19644.3.1concept
Question

What are the three types of gene mutation?

Answer

**Substitution**, **insertion** and **deletion**.

Card 19654.3.1definition
Question

Define a substitution mutation.

Answer

One base is **swapped for a different base**; the total number of bases stays the same.

Card 19664.3.1definition
Question

Define an insertion mutation.

Answer

An extra base is **added** into the sequence; the total number of bases increases.

Card 19674.3.1definition
Question

Define a deletion mutation.

Answer

A base is **removed** from the sequence; the total number of bases decreases.

Card 19684.3.1concept
Question

What is a frameshift, and which mutations cause it?

Answer

A shift in the reading frame so every codon downstream is read differently — caused by **insertion or deletion**.

Card 19694.3.1concept
Question

Why doesn't a substitution cause a frameshift?

Answer

Because it **does not change the number of bases** — the reading frame stays the same, so only one codon is affected.

Card 19704.3.1concept
Question

How can you classify a mutation from two base sequences?

Answer

**Count the bases**: same number (one letter different) = substitution; one more = insertion; one fewer = deletion.

Card 19714.3.1definition
Question

What is a mutagen? Give an example.

Answer

Anything that **increases the rate of mutation** — for example **UV light**, X-rays or certain chemicals.

Card 19724.3.1concept
Question

Are mutations always harmful?

Answer

**No** — they can be harmful, neutral or beneficial; they are random changes.

Card 19734.3.1concept
Question

Give one similarity between substitution and insertion.

Answer

Both are **random changes to the DNA base sequence** and both can produce a **new allele**.

Card 19744.3.1concept
Question

Give one difference between substitution and insertion.

Answer

Substitution **swaps** a base (number unchanged); insertion **adds** a base (number increases, causing a frameshift).

Card 19754.3.2definition
Question

Define a germline mutation.

Answer

A mutation in a **gamete** (egg/sperm) or a gamete-forming cell. It **can be inherited** by offspring.

Card 19764.3.2definition
Question

Define a somatic mutation.

Answer

A mutation in any **body cell other than a gamete-forming cell**. It **cannot be inherited**.

Card 19774.3.2concept
Question

Which type of mutation can be inherited, and why?

Answer

A **germline** mutation — it is in a gamete (or gamete-forming cell), so it is passed to offspring through reproduction.

Card 19784.3.2concept
Question

In which cell would a mutation be heritable?

Answer

A **gamete-forming (germline) cell** — for example a cell in the **testis or ovary**, or a sperm or egg.

Card 19794.3.2definition
Question

What is a mutagen?

Answer

An **agent that increases the rate of mutation** — e.g. UV light, X-rays, or chemicals in tobacco smoke.

Card 19804.3.2concept
Question

Give two examples of mutagens.

Answer

**Radiation** (UV light, X-rays) and **chemicals** (e.g. those in tobacco smoke).

Card 19814.3.2definition
Question

What is a carcinogen?

Answer

A **mutagen that increases the risk of cancer** (for example the chemicals in tobacco smoke).

Card 19824.3.2definition
Question

Define cancer.

Answer

A disease in which body cells **divide uncontrollably**, forming a **tumour** that can invade and spread.

Card 19834.3.2concept
Question

Outline how a mutation can lead to cancer.

Answer

A mutation in a gene controlling **cell division** → the cell **divides uncontrollably** → mutations **accumulate** → a **tumour** forms.

Card 19844.3.2concept
Question

Why does cancer usually need more than one mutation?

Answer

It requires an **accumulation of several mutations** in the same cell line before division becomes fully uncontrolled.

Card 19854.3.2concept
Question

How can smoking cause lung cancer?

Answer

Chemicals in smoke are **mutagens** → they cause **mutations** in lung-cell DNA (cell-division genes) → **uncontrolled division** → a **tumour**.

Card 19864.3.2concept
Question

Is cancer normally inherited?

Answer

**No** — cancer arises from **somatic** mutations in body cells, so it is not passed to offspring (only an inherited *risk* can run in families).

Card 19874.3.3concept
Question

What type of mutation causes sickle-cell anaemia?

Answer

A **base substitution** — one base in the haemoglobin gene is swapped for another.

Card 19884.3.3concept
Question

Which protein is affected in sickle-cell anaemia?

Answer

**Haemoglobin** — the oxygen-carrying protein in red blood cells.

Card 19894.3.3concept
Question

Which amino acid change does the sickle-cell mutation cause?

Answer

**Glutamic acid is replaced by valine** in the haemoglobin chain.

Card 19904.3.3concept
Question

How many bases and amino acids actually change?

Answer

Just **one base** in the gene, which changes just **one amino acid** in the protein.

Card 19914.3.3definition
Question

What is HbS?

Answer

**Sickle haemoglobin** — the abnormal haemoglobin made by the sickle-cell allele. It sticks together into fibres when oxygen is low.

Card 19924.3.3concept
Question

Why do red blood cells become sickle-shaped?

Answer

When oxygen is low, abnormal haemoglobin (HbS) **sticks together into fibres** that pull the cell into a rigid sickle (crescent) shape.

Card 19934.3.3definition
Question

Define a base substitution.

Answer

A mutation in which **one base in the DNA is replaced by a different base**.

Card 19944.3.3definition
Question

Define phenotype.

Answer

The **observable characteristics** of an organism — here, the symptoms of sickle-cell anaemia.

Card 19954.3.3concept
Question

Why do sickled cells cause pain?

Answer

They are **rigid** and get stuck, **blocking small blood vessels (capillaries)**.

Card 19964.3.3concept
Question

Why does sickle-cell anaemia cause tiredness and anaemia?

Answer

Sickled cells **carry less oxygen** and are **destroyed faster**, so tissues get less oxygen and there are too few red blood cells.

Card 19974.3.3concept
Question

State the cascade from mutation to phenotype in order.

Answer

Base substitution -> changed codon -> one amino acid changed (glutamic acid -> valine) -> abnormal haemoglobin -> sickled cells -> sickle-cell anaemia.

Card 19984.3.3concept
Question

Why can one base change cause a serious disease?

Answer

The gene is a **code**: one base change can change one codon, then one amino acid, then the **shape and behaviour** of the whole protein.

Card 19994.3.4definition
Question

What is a chromosome mutation?

Answer

A change in the **number (or structure) of whole chromosomes**, rather than a change to the DNA bases of one gene.

Card 20004.3.4definition
Question

Define non-disjunction.

Answer

The **failure of chromosomes (meiosis I) or sister chromatids (meiosis II) to separate** during meiosis, so both copies end up in the same gamete.

Card 20014.3.4concept
Question

What does the word 'non-disjunction' literally mean?

Answer

'Disjunction' = separating, so **non-disjunction = not separating**.

Card 20024.3.4concept
Question

What kind of gamete does non-disjunction produce?

Answer

One gamete with an **extra chromosome (n + 1)** and another **missing that chromosome (n − 1)**.

Card 20034.3.4definition
Question

Define aneuploidy.

Answer

Having an **abnormal number of chromosomes** — one too many or one too few — rather than a whole extra set.

Card 20044.3.4definition
Question

Define trisomy.

Answer

Having **three copies** of a particular chromosome instead of the normal two.

Card 20054.3.4concept
Question

Which chromosome is present in three copies in Down syndrome?

Answer

**Chromosome 21** — three copies is called **trisomy 21**.

Card 20064.3.4concept
Question

Outline how non-disjunction causes Down syndrome.

Answer

Chromosome 21 **fails to separate** in meiosis → a gamete gets an **extra copy** → **fertilisation** adds a third copy → **trisomy 21**.

Card 20074.3.4concept
Question

Why is the offspring affected in every cell?

Answer

The whole body grows from the single zygote by **mitosis**, so **every cell** inherits the extra chromosome.

Card 20084.3.4concept
Question

How does a chromosome mutation differ from a gene mutation?

Answer

A gene mutation changes **a few DNA bases** in one gene; a chromosome mutation adds or loses a **whole chromosome** and can be seen on a karyogram.

Card 20094.3.4concept
Question

How does Down-syndrome incidence change with maternal age?

Answer

It **increases with age**, slowly at first and then **steeply** at older ages.

Card 20104.3.4concept
Question

Can non-disjunction be seen on a karyogram?

Answer

**Yes** — an extra or missing whole chromosome shows up as an extra (or absent) band, unlike a tiny gene mutation.

Card 20114.3.5definition
Question

What is genetic modification?

Answer

Deliberately changing an organism's DNA — for example by **adding a gene** from another organism or **editing** an existing gene.

Card 20124.3.5definition
Question

What is a transgenic organism?

Answer

A GM organism that carries a gene **transferred from a different species**.

Card 20134.3.5definition
Question

What does a restriction enzyme do?

Answer

**Cuts** DNA at a specific recognition sequence, often leaving short single-stranded **sticky ends**.

Card 20144.3.5definition
Question

What does DNA ligase do?

Answer

**Joins** two pieces of DNA by re-forming the **sugar–phosphate backbone** — it seals the gene into the vector.

Card 20154.3.5definition
Question

What is a vector in gene transfer?

Answer

A small loop of DNA (often a bacterial **plasmid**) that **carries a gene into a host cell**.

Card 20164.3.5definition
Question

What is recombinant DNA?

Answer

A single DNA molecule made by **joining DNA from two different sources** (e.g. a plasmid with a new gene added).

Card 20174.3.5concept
Question

Why is the same restriction enzyme used to cut the gene and the vector?

Answer

So both have the **same, matching sticky ends**, which are **complementary** and can base-pair together before ligase seals them.

Card 20184.3.5concept
Question

Name the correct order of tools in gene transfer.

Answer

Restriction enzyme **cuts** → DNA ligase **joins** (recombinant DNA) → vector **carries** the gene into the host → host **expresses** it.

Card 20194.3.5definition
Question

What is transformation in genetic engineering?

Answer

The **uptake of the recombinant plasmid (vector) by a host cell**, after which the gene is expressed.

Card 20204.3.5concept
Question

How does CRISPR-Cas9 find the DNA to cut?

Answer

A **guide RNA** base-pairs with the chosen target sequence and leads the **Cas9** protein there to **cut** the DNA.

Card 20214.3.5concept
Question

How is CRISPR-Cas9 different from classic gene transfer?

Answer

CRISPR **edits / knocks out a gene already in the cell**, rather than **adding** a foreign gene.

Card 20224.3.5concept
Question

Give one advantage of a GM crop.

Answer

Higher **yield**, less crop lost to weeds/pests, less spraying, or more nutritious / drought-tolerant crops.

Card 20234.3.5concept
Question

Give one concern about GM crops.

Answer

GM genes could **spread to wild plants**, long-term effects are **uncertain**, seeds are **patented/costly**, or there are **ethical** objections.

Card 20244.3.5concept
Question

Which enzyme cuts DNA and which joins it?

Answer

**Restriction enzyme cuts**; **DNA ligase joins**.

Card 20254.3.6concept
Question

What are the two main stages of DNA profiling?

Answer

**PCR** (copies the DNA) then **gel electrophoresis** (separates the copies by size).

Card 20264.3.6definition
Question

What does PCR stand for, and what does it do?

Answer

**Polymerase chain reaction** — it makes **millions of copies** of a chosen piece of DNA (amplification).

Card 20274.3.6concept
Question

Which profiling stage uses the polymerase chain reaction?

Answer

The **amplification (copying)** stage.

Card 20284.3.6concept
Question

What are the three steps of one PCR cycle?

Answer

**Denaturation** (~95 °C), **annealing** of primers (~55 °C) and **extension** by Taq polymerase (~72 °C).

Card 20294.3.6concept
Question

What happens during denaturation in PCR?

Answer

The DNA is heated to ~95 °C, which **separates the double helix into two single strands**.

Card 20304.3.6concept
Question

What happens during annealing in PCR?

Answer

The mixture cools to ~55 °C so that short **primers bind** to each single strand.

Card 20314.3.6concept
Question

What happens during extension in PCR?

Answer

At ~72 °C, **Taq polymerase** adds nucleotides to build a new **complementary strand**.

Card 20324.3.6concept
Question

Why must PCR use Taq polymerase?

Answer

Taq is **heat-stable**, so it survives the ~95 °C step that would destroy a normal enzyme.

Card 20334.3.6concept
Question

What happens to the amount of DNA each PCR cycle?

Answer

It **doubles** — repeated cycling gives millions of copies.

Card 20344.3.6definition
Question

What does gel electrophoresis do?

Answer

It **separates DNA fragments by size** using an electric field.

Card 20354.3.6concept
Question

Why does DNA move toward the anode (+) in a gel?

Answer

Because DNA is **negatively charged**, so it is pulled toward the positive electrode.

Card 20364.3.6concept
Question

On a gel, which fragments travel furthest?

Answer

**Smaller (shorter) fragments** — they slip through the gel more easily.

Card 20374.4.1definition
Question

What is the cell cycle?

Answer

The **repeating sequence of events** a cell goes through from when it is formed to when it divides into two.

Card 20384.4.1concept
Question

What are the two main parts of the cell cycle?

Answer

A long **interphase** (the cell grows and copies its DNA) and a short **mitotic phase (M)** where it divides.

Card 20394.4.1definition
Question

What is interphase?

Answer

The part of the cell cycle when the cell is **not dividing** — it **grows** and **replicates its DNA**. It is made of G1, S and G2.

Card 20404.4.1concept
Question

Which three stages make up interphase, in order?

Answer

**G1, then S, then G2.**

Card 20414.4.1concept
Question

What happens in G1 phase?

Answer

The cell **grows larger** and makes new proteins and organelles.

Card 20424.4.1concept
Question

What happens in S phase?

Answer

The **DNA is replicated** (copied) — so the amount of DNA in the cell **doubles**.

Card 20434.4.1concept
Question

What happens in G2 phase?

Answer

The cell keeps **growing** and **prepares to divide**, checking the copied DNA is ready.

Card 20444.4.1concept
Question

What happens in the M (mitotic) phase?

Answer

The **nucleus divides** (mitosis) and the **cell splits in two** (cytokinesis).

Card 20454.4.1concept
Question

Is the M phase part of interphase?

Answer

**No** — interphase is only G1, S and G2. The M phase is the separate dividing part.

Card 20464.4.1concept
Question

How does the DNA quantity differ between G1 and G2?

Answer

A cell at **G2 has twice as much DNA** as a cell at G1, because DNA is copied in S phase (in between).

Card 20474.4.1concept
Question

Which is the longest part of the cell cycle?

Answer

**Interphase** — the cell spends most of its time growing and copying DNA; the M phase (division) is short.

Card 20484.4.1concept
Question

On a DNA-mass graph, what does a rising line mean?

Answer

The cell is in **S phase**, copying (replicating) its DNA.

Card 20494.4.1concept
Question

On a DNA-mass graph, what does a sudden drop to half mean?

Answer

The cell is **dividing (mitosis)** and sharing its DNA equally between two daughter cells.

Card 20504.4.2definition
Question

What is mitosis?

Answer

The division of a nucleus into **two genetically identical** daughter nuclei, each with the **same number of chromosomes** as the parent.

Card 20514.4.2concept
Question

What are the four phases of mitosis, in order?

Answer

**Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase** (remember **PMAT**).

Card 20524.4.2concept
Question

What happens in prophase?

Answer

Chromosomes **condense** (coil up) and become visible; the spindle starts to form and the nuclear membrane breaks down.

Card 20534.4.2concept
Question

What happens in metaphase?

Answer

Chromosomes line up **single file along the middle (equator)** of the cell, attached to spindle fibres.

Card 20544.4.2concept
Question

What happens in anaphase?

Answer

The centromeres split and the **sister chromatids are pulled apart** to opposite poles.

Card 20554.4.2concept
Question

What happens in telophase?

Answer

**Two** new nuclear membranes form around the two groups of chromosomes, giving **two nuclei**.

Card 20564.4.2definition
Question

What are sister chromatids?

Answer

The **two identical copies** of a chromosome, made by DNA replication and joined at the **centromere** until anaphase.

Card 20574.4.2concept
Question

Why are the two daughter cells of mitosis genetically identical?

Answer

The DNA was **replicated once** into identical sister chromatids, which **separate** in anaphase so each cell gets one complete, identical set.

Card 20584.4.2concept
Question

Do the daughter cells of mitosis stay diploid?

Answer

**Yes** — mitosis does not change the chromosome number; both daughters have the same (diploid) set as the parent.

Card 20594.4.2concept
Question

What is mitosis used for in the body?

Answer

**Growth, repair** of tissue, and **asexual reproduction** — making more identical cells.

Card 20604.4.2concept
Question

Name an event that occurs in BOTH mitosis and meiosis.

Answer

**DNA replication** beforehand (also chromosome condensation and spindle formation).

Card 20614.4.2concept
Question

How does mitosis differ from meiosis in outcome?

Answer

Mitosis = **one** division → **two identical diploid** cells; meiosis = **two** divisions → **four different haploid** gametes.

Card 20624.4.3definition
Question

What is cytokinesis?

Answer

The division of the **cytoplasm** to form two separate daughter cells, after mitosis has divided the nucleus.

Card 20634.4.3concept
Question

What is the difference between mitosis and cytokinesis?

Answer

**Mitosis** divides the **nucleus** (chromosomes); **cytokinesis** divides the **cytoplasm** into two cells.

Card 20644.4.3concept
Question

How does cytokinesis happen in an animal cell?

Answer

A **contractile ring** contracts and pulls the membrane inwards, forming a **cleavage furrow** that deepens until the cell is pinched in two.

Card 20654.4.3concept
Question

How does cytokinesis happen in a plant cell?

Answer

**Vesicles** of wall material fuse to form a **cell plate**, which grows **outwards** to the existing walls and divides the cell.

Card 20664.4.3concept
Question

Why do plant cells form a cell plate instead of pinching inwards?

Answer

Plant cells have a rigid **cell wall** that cannot pinch in, so a new wall (cell plate) must be built across the middle.

Card 20674.4.3definition
Question

What is a cleavage furrow?

Answer

A groove formed in an **animal** cell's membrane that deepens until the cell is pinched into two daughter cells.

Card 20684.4.3definition
Question

What is a cell plate?

Answer

A new wall built across the middle of a dividing **plant** cell, growing outwards until it separates the two daughter cells.

Card 20694.4.3concept
Question

Is the cytoplasm usually shared equally between daughter cells?

Answer

**Yes** — in most divisions the cytoplasm is split roughly equally.

Card 20704.4.3concept
Question

Which process is an exception to equal cytoplasm sharing?

Answer

**Egg (gamete) formation** — almost all the cytoplasm goes to one large egg, leaving tiny polar bodies.

Card 20714.4.3definition
Question

What is the mitotic index?

Answer

The proportion of cells that are dividing: **cells in mitosis ÷ total cells counted**.

Card 20724.4.3concept
Question

How do you calculate the mitotic index from a cell count?

Answer

Divide the number of cells **in mitosis** by the **total** number of cells counted (e.g. 30 ÷ 200 = 0.15).

Card 20734.4.3concept
Question

What does a high mitotic index indicate?

Answer

A **large proportion of cells are dividing** → rapidly growing tissue (a meristem), or uncontrolled division in a tumour.

Card 20744.4.4definition
Question

What is meiosis?

Answer

The division that makes **gametes**: one **diploid (2n)** cell divides **twice** into **four haploid (n)** cells that are genetically different.

Card 20754.4.4concept
Question

Why is meiosis called a reduction division?

Answer

Because it **halves** the chromosome number — a **diploid (2n)** cell becomes **haploid (n)** gametes.

Card 20764.4.4definition
Question

Define a diploid cell.

Answer

A cell with **two copies of each chromosome** (one set from each parent); in humans, 46 chromosomes = 23 pairs.

Card 20774.4.4definition
Question

Define a haploid cell.

Answer

A cell with **one copy of each chromosome** — half the diploid number; in humans, 23 chromosomes. Gametes are haploid.

Card 20784.4.4definition
Question

What are homologous chromosomes?

Answer

A **matching pair** of chromosomes — same size, carrying the same genes — one inherited from each parent.

Card 20794.4.4concept
Question

What is separated during meiosis I?

Answer

The **homologous chromosomes** (the matching pairs) — this is where the chromosome number **halves**.

Card 20804.4.4concept
Question

What is separated during meiosis II?

Answer

The **sister chromatids** — finishing the division to give **four** haploid cells.

Card 20814.4.4concept
Question

What is crossing over, and when does it happen?

Answer

In **prophase I**, homologous chromosomes **pair up and swap matching sections**, mixing the alleles on each chromosome.

Card 20824.4.4concept
Question

What is independent assortment, and when does it happen?

Answer

In **metaphase I**, each homologous **pair** is sorted to the poles **at random**, shuffling maternal and paternal chromosomes.

Card 20834.4.4concept
Question

Which two processes make meiosis generate variation?

Answer

**Crossing over** (prophase I) and **independent assortment** (metaphase I).

Card 20844.4.4concept
Question

Why must gametes be haploid?

Answer

So that **fertilisation** (two gametes joining) restores the **diploid** number without doubling it each generation.

Card 20854.4.4concept
Question

Where does meiosis occur in a flowering plant?

Answer

In the **anthers** (making pollen / male gametes) and the **ovules** (making the female gametes / egg cells).

Card 20864.4.4concept
Question

How many cells does one meiosis produce, and how do they compare?

Answer

**Four** haploid cells, all **genetically different** from each other and from the parent cell.

Card 20874.4.4concept
Question

How does meiosis differ from mitosis?

Answer

Mitosis = one division → **two identical** diploid cells; meiosis = two divisions → **four different** haploid gametes.

Card 20884.4.5definition
Question

What is a karyotype?

Answer

The **number and appearance** (size and shape) of all the chromosomes in a cell.

Card 20894.4.5definition
Question

What is a karyogram?

Answer

A processed **photograph** of a cell's chromosomes, cut out and arranged in **homologous pairs** by size and centromere position.

Card 20904.4.5definition
Question

What does ploidy mean?

Answer

The number of complete **chromosome sets** in a cell — haploid (n), diploid (2n) or polyploid (3n, 4n…).

Card 20914.4.5definition
Question

What are homologous chromosomes?

Answer

A **matching pair** — same size, same centromere position, carrying the same genes (one from each parent).

Card 20924.4.5concept
Question

How many chromosome sets does a diploid (2n) cell have, and where is it found?

Answer

**Two** sets — found in **body (somatic) cells** (human 2n = 46).

Card 20934.4.5concept
Question

How many chromosome sets does a haploid (n) cell have, and where is it found?

Answer

**One** set — found in **gametes** (egg, sperm) (human n = 23).

Card 20944.4.5definition
Question

What is a polyploid cell?

Answer

A cell with **three or more** chromosome sets (3n, 4n…), common in plants.

Card 20954.4.5concept
Question

Which three criteria are used to classify chromosomes?

Answer

**Size (length)**, **centromere position**, and **banding pattern**.

Card 20964.4.5definition
Question

What does 'acrocentric' mean?

Answer

A chromosome whose **centromere is near one end** rather than in the middle.

Card 20974.4.5concept
Question

How can you tell a gamete from a somatic cell using a chromosome count?

Answer

**Single** chromosomes (one set) = haploid **gamete**; chromosomes in **pairs** (two sets) = diploid **somatic** cell.

Card 20984.4.5definition
Question

What is non-disjunction?

Answer

When a chromosome pair (or sister chromatids) **fails to separate** during meiosis, giving a gamete an **extra or missing** chromosome.

Card 20994.4.5concept
Question

What is trisomy, and give an example?

Answer

Having **three copies** of one chromosome instead of a pair — e.g. **trisomy 21 (Down syndrome)** or **trisomy 18 (Edward's syndrome)**.

Card 21004.4.5concept
Question

List the steps to build a karyogram.

Answer

**Stain** the chromosomes, **photograph** them, **cut out** each one, **pair up the homologues**, and **arrange** the pairs largest to smallest.

Card 21014.4.5concept
Question

Why are chromosomes studied during cell division for a karyogram?

Answer

Because then they are **condensed (short and thick)** and clearly **visible** under a microscope.

Card 21024.5.1definition
Question

Define gene expression.

Answer

The **transcription and translation** of a gene to make its **protein** (the gene's product).

Card 21034.5.1definition
Question

What is a gene's 'product'?

Answer

The **protein** that the gene codes for — the end result of expressing it.

Card 21044.5.1concept
Question

Every cell in your body has the same DNA. So why are cells different?

Answer

**Differential gene expression** — each cell type switches on a **different subset** of genes, so it makes different proteins.

Card 21054.5.1concept
Question

What happens to a gene's protein if the gene is switched off?

Answer

The gene is **not transcribed**, so **no mRNA and no protein** are made — even though the gene is still in the DNA.

Card 21064.5.1definition
Question

Define differential gene expression.

Answer

Different cell types expressing **different subsets** of the same genome, so each makes a different set of proteins.

Card 21074.5.1concept
Question

What is cell differentiation, in terms of genes?

Answer

A cell settling into a **stable pattern** of which genes it expresses — a 'cell type' is just a particular set of switched-on genes.

Card 21084.5.1concept
Question

A neuron and a red blood cell both have the haemoglobin gene. Why does only one make haemoglobin?

Answer

The red-blood-cell precursor **expresses** (switches on) the gene; the neuron keeps it **off**, so only the red blood cell makes the protein.

Card 21094.5.2concept
Question

What is the MAIN control point of gene expression?

Answer

**Transcription** — whether the gene is copied into **mRNA** at all.

Card 21104.5.2definition
Question

What is a transcription factor?

Answer

A **protein** that binds a specific **regulatory sequence** in the DNA and controls whether a gene is transcribed.

Card 21114.5.2definition
Question

Where do transcription factors bind?

Answer

To **regulatory sequences** in the DNA, such as the **promoter** or an **enhancer**.

Card 21124.5.2concept
Question

What does an ACTIVATOR do?

Answer

It **helps RNA polymerase bind the promoter**, so transcription **starts** — the gene is switched **ON** (mRNA made).

Card 21134.5.2concept
Question

What does a REPRESSOR do?

Answer

It **blocks RNA polymerase / the promoter**, so transcription is **prevented** — the gene is switched **OFF** (no mRNA).

Card 21144.5.2concept
Question

Why do different cell types express different genes from the same DNA?

Answer

Because they contain **different sets of transcription factors**, so different genes are transcribed.

Card 21154.5.2concept
Question

How can a hormone change which genes are expressed?

Answer

It can **act as, or switch on, a transcription factor** that binds specific genes and turns them on in target cells.

Card 21164.5.3definition
Question

Define epigenetics.

Answer

**Heritable changes in gene expression** that do **NOT change the DNA base sequence**.

Card 21174.5.3concept
Question

What does DNA methylation do to a gene?

Answer

Methyl (**CH₃**) groups are added to the DNA (often at the **promoter**), which **blocks transcription** and **silences** the gene (switches it OFF).

Card 21184.5.3concept
Question

How does histone modification control gene expression?

Answer

It changes how **tightly the DNA is packed**: **tightly packed = OFF** (hidden from RNA polymerase), **loosely packed = ON** (accessible).

Card 21194.5.3concept
Question

Tightly packed DNA — is the gene ON or OFF?

Answer

**OFF** — condensed DNA is inaccessible, so RNA polymerase cannot reach the gene.

Card 21204.5.3concept
Question

How is an epigenetic change different from a mutation?

Answer

A **mutation changes the base sequence**; an **epigenetic** change only changes **whether the gene is expressed** — the sequence is unchanged.

Card 21214.5.3concept
Question

Are epigenetic marks permanent?

Answer

No — they are **reversible**, and they can also be **inherited** (copied to daughter cells).

Card 21224.5.4concept
Question

Name four environmental factors that can change epigenetic marks.

Answer

**Diet, stress, toxins and temperature** — each can add or remove marks and switch genes on or off.

Card 21234.5.4concept
Question

How does the environment change gene expression?

Answer

It **alters epigenetic marks** (e.g. **methylation**) on top of the DNA, switching genes on or off — **without changing the base sequence**.

Card 21244.5.4concept
Question

Are epigenetic changes inherited? How?

Answer

Yes — **through mitosis** to daughter cells (maintaining a differentiated state), and **sometimes across generations** to offspring.

Card 21254.5.4concept
Question

Epigenetic change vs mutation — the key difference?

Answer

An **epigenetic change** alters the **marks** (base sequence unchanged, **reversible**); a **mutation** changes the **DNA base sequence** (usually **permanent**).

Card 21264.5.4concept
Question

Why can identical twins end up different?

Answer

Same DNA, but **different environments change their epigenetic marks** over time → **same genotype, different phenotype**.

Card 21274.5.4concept
Question

In one line, what does epigenetics explain?

Answer

How the **same genotype** can give **different phenotypes**, depending on the **environment** and the cell's **history**.

Card 21284.5.4definition
Question

Define an epigenetic mark.

Answer

A **chemical tag on top of the DNA** (e.g. a methyl group) that changes **gene expression without changing the base sequence**.

Card 21294.5.5definition
Question

Define a mutation.

Answer

A **permanent change to the DNA base sequence**. It is heritable, **not normally reversible**, and can change the **structure** of the protein.

Card 21304.5.5definition
Question

Define an epigenetic change.

Answer

A change in **gene expression** (via methylation / histone tags) **without altering the base sequence**. It is **reversible** and changes the **amount** of protein made.

Card 21314.5.5concept
Question

Mutation vs epigenetic change — the one-question test?

Answer

Did the **DNA base sequence change**? **Yes = mutation**; **no (but expression changed) = epigenetic change**.

Card 21324.5.5concept
Question

Which is reversible — a mutation or an epigenetic change?

Answer

An **epigenetic change** is reversible (a tag can be added/removed); a **mutation** is not normally reversible.

Card 21334.5.5concept
Question

How does each affect the protein?

Answer

A **mutation** can change the protein's **structure**; an **epigenetic change** changes the **amount** of (normal) protein made.

Card 21344.5.5concept
Question

How is gene expression measured?

Answer

By the **amount of mRNA (or protein)** a gene produces. **More mRNA = more highly expressed**; near-zero mRNA = the gene is switched off.

Card 21354.5.5concept
Question

Same gene, different mRNA amounts in two cell types — what does it mean?

Answer

The cells differ in **expression**, not in their DNA — the same gene is read more strongly in one cell (often an epigenetic difference).

Card 21364.6.1definition
Question

Define osmosis.

Answer

The **net movement of water** across a **partially permeable membrane**, from a **higher** water potential to a **lower** water potential.

Card 21374.6.1definition
Question

Define water potential.

Answer

A measure of **how freely water can move out** of a solution. **Pure water** has the highest water potential; adding solute lowers it.

Card 21384.6.1definition
Question

What is solvation?

Answer

The process in which **water molecules surround and separate** each dissolved **solute** particle, holding it in solution.

Card 21394.6.1definition
Question

What is a partially permeable membrane?

Answer

A membrane that lets **water** through but blocks (most of) the dissolved **solute** particles.

Card 21404.6.1concept
Question

Which way does water move in osmosis?

Answer

From a **higher** water potential (dilute) to a **lower** water potential (concentrated).

Card 21414.6.1concept
Question

What does adding solute do to water potential?

Answer

It **lowers** the water potential — the more concentrated the solution, the lower its water potential.

Card 21424.6.1concept
Question

Which solution has the higher water potential — dilute or concentrated?

Answer

The **dilute** solution — it has fewer solutes and more free water, so a higher water potential.

Card 21434.6.1concept
Question

What two conditions are required for osmosis across a membrane?

Answer

A **partially permeable membrane** AND a **difference in water potential** (a solute-concentration gradient).

Card 21444.6.1concept
Question

Is osmosis active or passive?

Answer

**Passive** — it needs no energy (no ATP); water moves down its own gradient.

Card 21454.6.1concept
Question

What happens when both sides of a membrane have equal water potential?

Answer

There is **no net movement** of water — water still crosses both ways, but in equal amounts (isotonic).

Card 21464.6.1concept
Question

Why does a concentrated solution have fewer 'free' water molecules?

Answer

Because **solvation** ties up water molecules around the solute particles, leaving fewer free to move.

Card 21474.6.1concept
Question

How do you predict the direction of osmosis from two solute concentrations?

Answer

The **more concentrated** side has the **lower** water potential, so water moves **into** it from the more dilute side.

Card 21484.6.2definition
Question

Define osmolarity.

Answer

The **total concentration of solute particles** in a solution — more solute means a higher osmolarity.

Card 21494.6.2definition
Question

Define osmosis.

Answer

The net movement of **water** across a partially permeable membrane, from a **lower** osmolarity (dilute) toward a **higher** osmolarity (concentrated).

Card 21504.6.2concept
Question

Toward which side does water move by osmosis?

Answer

Toward the **higher osmolarity** — the more concentrated solution (the side with less water).

Card 21514.6.2definition
Question

What is a hypotonic solution?

Answer

One with a **lower osmolarity** than the cell (more dilute). Water moves **into** the cell.

Card 21524.6.2definition
Question

What is an isotonic solution?

Answer

One with the **same osmolarity** as the cell. There is **no net movement** of water.

Card 21534.6.2definition
Question

What is a hypertonic solution?

Answer

One with a **higher osmolarity** than the cell (more concentrated). Water moves **out** of the cell.

Card 21544.6.2concept
Question

What happens to a cell in a hypotonic solution?

Answer

Water moves **in**, so the cell **gains water and swells** (and without a wall it may burst).

Card 21554.6.2concept
Question

What happens to a cell in a hypertonic solution?

Answer

Water moves **out**, so the cell **loses water and shrinks**.

Card 21564.6.2concept
Question

What happens to a cell in an isotonic solution?

Answer

There is **no net movement** of water, so the cell **stays the same**.

Card 21574.6.2concept
Question

Why is tonicity described as 'relative'?

Answer

A solution is only hypotonic / isotonic / hypertonic **compared to another** solution (or to the cell) — never on its own.

Card 21584.6.2concept
Question

A tissue GAINS mass in a solution. What was the tonicity?

Answer

The solution was **hypotonic** — water moved into the tissue, so it gained mass.

Card 21594.6.2concept
Question

A tissue LOSES mass in a solution. What was the tonicity?

Answer

The solution was **hypertonic** — water moved out of the tissue, so it lost mass.

Card 21604.6.2concept
Question

A tissue shows NO mass change in a solution. What was the tonicity?

Answer

The solution was **isotonic** — no net movement of water, so no change in mass.

Card 21614.6.3concept
Question

A walled cell's water potential is equal to what?

Answer

Its **solute potential + pressure potential** (Ψ = Ψs + Ψp).

Card 21624.6.3definition
Question

Define water potential (Ψ).

Answer

A measure of the tendency of water to leave a cell or solution by osmosis. Water moves from a **higher** to a **lower** water potential.

Card 21634.6.3definition
Question

Define solute potential (Ψs).

Answer

The part of the water potential caused by **dissolved solutes**. It is always **zero or negative** and lowers the water potential.

Card 21644.6.3definition
Question

Define pressure potential (Ψp).

Answer

The part of the water potential caused by physical pressure — in a plant cell, the contents pushing on the **wall**. It **raises** the water potential.

Card 21654.6.3concept
Question

How do solutes change the water potential?

Answer

They **lower** it (make it more negative), so they pull water into the cell.

Card 21664.6.3concept
Question

How does the pressure potential change the water potential?

Answer

It **raises** it (makes it less negative) as the cell fills and the wall pushes back.

Card 21674.6.3concept
Question

Which way does water move between two water potentials?

Answer

From the **higher** (less negative) water potential to the **lower** (more negative) one.

Card 21684.6.3concept
Question

What happens to a plant cell in a hypotonic solution?

Answer

Water **enters**, the pressure potential rises, and the cell becomes **turgid** (firm). The wall stops it bursting.

Card 21694.6.3concept
Question

What happens to a plant cell in a hypertonic solution?

Answer

Water **leaves**, the cell goes **flaccid**, and with more loss the membrane pulls from the wall — it is **plasmolysed**.

Card 21704.6.3concept
Question

Why does a plant cell not burst in pure water?

Answer

Its rigid **cell wall** resists expansion, so water entry builds a **pressure potential** and the cell becomes turgid instead of bursting.

Card 21714.6.3definition
Question

What is turgor?

Answer

The firmness of a plant cell when it is full of water and pushing against its wall — the result of a **high pressure potential**.

Card 21724.6.3concept
Question

In a plasmolysed cell, what fills the gap between the contents and the wall?

Answer

The **external (surrounding) solution** that has drawn water out of the cell.

Card 21734.6.3concept
Question

Why does a walled cell need TWO potentials and an animal cell needs only the solute one?

Answer

Only a **walled** cell can build a **pressure potential** as the wall pushes back; an animal cell has no wall, so no pressure term develops.

Card 21744.6.4definition
Question

Define osmosis.

Answer

The net movement of **water** across a partially permeable membrane, from a **more dilute** solution to a **more concentrated** one.

Card 21754.6.4concept
Question

Why are animal cells especially affected by tonicity?

Answer

They have **no cell wall** — only a flexible plasma membrane — so they can **burst** or **shrivel** as water moves in or out.

Card 21764.6.4definition
Question

Define a hypotonic solution.

Answer

A solution that is **more dilute** than the inside of the cell (lower solute concentration); water moves **into** the cell.

Card 21774.6.4definition
Question

Define an isotonic solution.

Answer

A solution with the **same** solute concentration as the cell; there is **no net movement** of water.

Card 21784.6.4definition
Question

Define a hypertonic solution.

Answer

A solution that is **more concentrated** than the inside of the cell (higher solute concentration); water moves **out** of the cell.

Card 21794.6.4concept
Question

What happens to an animal cell in a hypotonic solution?

Answer

Water enters by osmosis, so the cell **swells and may burst** — this bursting is called **lysis** (haemolysis in red blood cells).

Card 21804.6.4concept
Question

What happens to an animal cell in an isotonic solution?

Answer

**No net movement** of water, so the cell **stays the same** shape and size.

Card 21814.6.4concept
Question

What happens to an animal cell in a hypertonic solution?

Answer

Water leaves by osmosis, so the cell **shrinks and wrinkles** — this is called **crenation**.

Card 21824.6.4definition
Question

What is lysis?

Answer

The **bursting** of a cell when too much water enters it by osmosis (haemolysis if it is a red blood cell).

Card 21834.6.4definition
Question

What is crenation?

Answer

The **shrivelling / wrinkling** of an animal cell when water leaves it in a hypertonic solution.

Card 21844.6.4concept
Question

Why do cells placed in distilled water burst?

Answer

Distilled (pure) water is strongly **hypotonic**, so water rushes in by osmosis and the cell **swells and bursts (lyses)**.

Card 21854.6.4concept
Question

How can you deduce the tonicity of a solution from a cell's appearance?

Answer

**Burst/swollen = hypotonic; unchanged = isotonic; shrunken/crenated = hypertonic** — read the cell's shape backwards.

Card 21864.6.4definition
Question

What is osmoregulation?

Answer

The **control of water balance** in a cell or organism — keeping the internal water content steady.

Card 21874.6.4concept
Question

How does a Paramecium avoid bursting in fresh water?

Answer

A **contractile vacuole** collects the excess water that enters by osmosis and **pumps it back out** of the cell.

Card 21884.6.5definition
Question

Define osmosis.

Answer

The **net movement of water** across a partially permeable membrane, from a **higher water potential (dilute)** to a **lower water potential (concentrated)**.

Card 21894.6.5concept
Question

What is the cell wall's role in osmosis?

Answer

It is **fully permeable** (water passes through), but it **resists pressure** so the cell does not burst — making the cell turgid instead.

Card 21904.6.5definition
Question

Define turgor pressure.

Answer

The **outward pressure** of the cell contents pushing against the cell wall when a plant cell has taken in water.

Card 21914.6.5definition
Question

What does 'turgid' mean?

Answer

A plant cell that is **full of water and firm**, with the contents pressing hard against the wall (high turgor pressure).

Card 21924.6.5definition
Question

What does 'flaccid' mean?

Answer

A plant cell that has **lost water and is limp**, with little or no turgor pressure pushing on the wall.

Card 21934.6.5definition
Question

Define plasmolysis.

Answer

When a plant cell loses so much water that the **cytoplasm and membrane pull away from the cell wall**.

Card 21944.6.5concept
Question

What happens to a plant cell in a HYPOTONIC solution?

Answer

Water **enters** by osmosis → the cell swells but the wall stops it bursting → it becomes **turgid**.

Card 21954.6.5concept
Question

What happens to a plant cell in an ISOTONIC solution?

Answer

**No net water movement** → low turgor → the cell is **flaccid** (limp).

Card 21964.6.5concept
Question

What happens to a plant cell in a HYPERTONIC solution?

Answer

Water **leaves** by osmosis → the cell loses turgor and becomes **plasmolysed** → the tissue wilts.

Card 21974.6.5concept
Question

In a plasmolysed cell, what fills the gap between the contents and the wall?

Answer

The **external (bathing) solution** — the fully permeable wall lets it flow in.

Card 21984.6.5concept
Question

Why does a plant cell NOT burst in pure water, but an animal cell does?

Answer

The plant cell's **strong wall resists the pressure** (it becomes turgid). The animal cell has **no wall**, so it keeps swelling and bursts.

Card 21994.6.5concept
Question

In a data experiment, what does a solution that causes NO net mass change tell you?

Answer

It is **isotonic** — the same concentration as the cell contents, so it estimates the cells' own **internal concentration**.

Card 22004.6.5concept
Question

Which way does water move relative to solute concentration?

Answer

Towards the **more concentrated** solution (lower water potential). To plasmolyse a cell the outside must be the more concentrated one.

Card 22014.7.1definition
Question

Define sexual reproduction.

Answer

Reproduction involving **two parents** and the **fusion of two gametes** to form the new organism.

Card 22024.7.1definition
Question

Define asexual reproduction.

Answer

Reproduction involving **one parent** and **no fusion of gametes** — the offspring are genetically identical to the parent.

Card 22034.7.1definition
Question

What is a gamete?

Answer

A **sex cell** (such as a sperm or an egg) that fuses with another gamete at fertilisation.

Card 22044.7.1definition
Question

What is fertilisation?

Answer

The **fusion of two gametes** to form a single new cell.

Card 22054.7.1definition
Question

What is a clone?

Answer

An organism that is **genetically identical** to its parent.

Card 22064.7.1concept
Question

How many parents does sexual reproduction need? Asexual?

Answer

Sexual reproduction needs **two** parents; asexual reproduction needs **one**.

Card 22074.7.1concept
Question

Which type of cell division does sexual reproduction use to make gametes?

Answer

**Meiosis** (followed by fertilisation when the gametes fuse).

Card 22084.7.1concept
Question

Which type of cell division does asexual reproduction use?

Answer

**Mitosis** only — it copies the genes exactly.

Card 22094.7.1concept
Question

Why are asexual offspring genetically identical to the parent?

Answer

There is **one parent** and only **mitosis**, so the genome is copied exactly — no gametes, no mixing of alleles.

Card 22104.7.1concept
Question

Name the three sources of genetic variation in sexual reproduction.

Answer

**Two parents** (different alleles), **meiosis** (shuffles alleles into different gametes) and **random fertilisation** (any gamete can fuse with any other).

Card 22114.7.1concept
Question

Why is genetic variation useful to a species?

Answer

It gives the species the **raw material for natural selection** to act on if the environment changes.

Card 22124.7.1concept
Question

A plant is grown from a cutting of one parent. How similar is its genome to the parent's?

Answer

**Genetically identical** — a cutting is asexual reproduction, so the genome is copied unchanged (a clone).

Card 22134.7.2definition
Question

What is a clone?

Answer

An organism (or cell) that is **genetically identical** to the one it came from.

Card 22144.7.2definition
Question

Define asexual reproduction.

Answer

Reproduction from a **single parent**, **without gametes or fertilisation**, producing offspring genetically identical to the parent.

Card 22154.7.2concept
Question

Which type of cell division produces clones, and why are they identical?

Answer

**Mitosis** — it copies the parent's DNA exactly, so there is **no genetic variation**.

Card 22164.7.2concept
Question

How do yeast cells reproduce?

Answer

By **budding** — a small outgrowth (bud) receives a copy of the genetic material and then **pinches off** as a smaller, identical daughter cell.

Card 22174.7.2concept
Question

Give two examples of NATURAL cloning.

Answer

**Budding** (yeast, Hydra) and plant **runners / tubers / bulbs** (e.g. strawberry, potato).

Card 22184.7.2definition
Question

What is vegetative propagation?

Answer

Cloning a plant by growing a new plant from a part of the parent — e.g. a **stem cutting** encouraged to grow roots.

Card 22194.7.2concept
Question

How would you clone a plant from a stem cutting?

Answer

Take a cutting from the parent, **encourage it to grow roots**, and raise a plant **genetically identical** to the parent.

Card 22204.7.2definition
Question

What is tissue culture (micropropagation)?

Answer

Growing **many identical plantlets** from a few cells of one plant on a sterile **nutrient medium**.

Card 22214.7.2concept
Question

Which method successfully cloned an adult animal, and what famous animal resulted?

Answer

**Somatic-cell nuclear transfer (SCNT)** — it produced **Dolly the sheep**.

Card 22224.7.2concept
Question

Outline the key steps of SCNT.

Answer

Take a **body-cell nucleus** → put it into an **egg whose nucleus was removed** → **stimulate** it into an embryo → **implant** in a surrogate mother.

Card 22234.7.2concept
Question

In SCNT, which nucleus is kept and which is removed?

Answer

The **adult body-cell nucleus** is kept (and transferred); the **egg's own nucleus is removed**.

Card 22244.7.2concept
Question

Predict how similar five plants grown from one parent's runners will be.

Answer

**Genetically identical** to each other and the parent — they are clones made by mitosis, so there is **no variation**.

Card 22254.7.2concept
Question

Is cloning sexual or asexual reproduction?

Answer

**Asexual** — it uses one parent and no fertilisation, so the offspring are clones.

Card 22264.7.3definition
Question

What is a gamete?

Answer

A **sex cell** (sperm or egg) used in sexual reproduction. Gametes are **haploid**.

Card 22274.7.3concept
Question

Where are sperm made? Where are eggs made?

Answer

Sperm are made in the **testes**; eggs are made in the **ovaries**.

Card 22284.7.3concept
Question

What type of cell division makes gametes?

Answer

**Meiosis** — it halves the chromosome number, producing **haploid** cells.

Card 22294.7.3definition
Question

What does 'haploid' mean?

Answer

Having **one set** of chromosomes (n). Human gametes are haploid (23 chromosomes).

Card 22304.7.3definition
Question

What does 'diploid' mean?

Answer

Having **two sets** of chromosomes (2n) — one from each parent. Most body cells are diploid (46 chromosomes).

Card 22314.7.3definition
Question

Define fertilization.

Answer

The **fusion of a sperm nucleus with an egg nucleus** to form a diploid zygote.

Card 22324.7.3definition
Question

What is a zygote?

Answer

The single **diploid (2n)** cell formed when a sperm fertilizes an egg; it divides to form an embryo.

Card 22334.7.3concept
Question

Why must gametes be haploid?

Answer

So that at fertilization the diploid number is **restored**, not **doubled** — keeping the chromosome number constant each generation.

Card 22344.7.3concept
Question

Where does fertilization usually take place?

Answer

In the **oviduct (fallopian tube)**.

Card 22354.7.3concept
Question

How does a sperm differ from an egg?

Answer

Sperm are **small, many and swim** with a tail (little food); the egg is **large, few, cannot swim** and has a big **food store**.

Card 22364.7.3concept
Question

Trace the path of sperm in the male system.

Answer

Made in the **testis** → carried by the **sperm duct** → out through the **urethra**.

Card 22374.7.3concept
Question

Trace the path of an egg in the female system.

Answer

Released from the **ovary** → travels along the **oviduct** → reaches the **uterus**.

Card 22384.7.3concept
Question

What stops more than one sperm fertilizing the egg?

Answer

Once one sperm enters, the egg membrane **changes to block any other sperm** (preventing extra chromosomes).

Card 22394.7.3concept
Question

In symbols, what happens at fertilization?

Answer

**n + n → 2n** — two haploid gametes fuse into one diploid zygote.

Card 22404.7.4concept
Question

How long is a typical menstrual cycle?

Answer

About **28 days**.

Card 22414.7.4concept
Question

Which two menstrual hormones come from the pituitary gland?

Answer

**FSH** and **LH**.

Card 22424.7.4concept
Question

Which two menstrual hormones come from the ovary?

Answer

**Oestrogen** (from the follicle) and **progesterone** (from the corpus luteum).

Card 22434.7.4concept
Question

What is the role of FSH?

Answer

It **stimulates a follicle in the ovary to grow** and mature.

Card 22444.7.4concept
Question

What is the role of oestrogen?

Answer

It **repairs and thickens the uterus lining**, and when high it **triggers the LH surge**.

Card 22454.7.4concept
Question

What causes ovulation, and when?

Answer

A sharp **LH surge** from the pituitary, around **day 14**.

Card 22464.7.4definition
Question

What is the corpus luteum?

Answer

What the **empty follicle becomes** after ovulation; it secretes **progesterone**.

Card 22474.7.4concept
Question

What are the roles of progesterone?

Answer

It **maintains the thick uterus lining** and **inhibits FSH and LH** (negative feedback).

Card 22484.7.4concept
Question

What happens at the end of the cycle if there is no pregnancy?

Answer

**Progesterone falls**, the lining breaks down (**menstruation**), and a new cycle begins.

Card 22494.7.4concept
Question

Give an example of positive feedback in the cycle.

Answer

**High oestrogen stimulates the LH surge** — a high level causes a bigger release.

Card 22504.7.4concept
Question

Give an example of negative feedback in the cycle.

Answer

**Oestrogen and progesterone inhibit FSH and LH**, stopping extra follicles ripening.

Card 22514.7.4concept
Question

On a hormone graph, what does a tall narrow LH spike around day 14 show?

Answer

**Ovulation** — the LH surge triggers the release of the egg.

Card 22524.7.4concept
Question

Which hormone maintains the uterus lining in the second half of the cycle?

Answer

**Progesterone**, made by the corpus luteum.

Card 22534.7.5definition
Question

What is a flower?

Answer

The **reproductive organ** of a flowering plant; it holds the male and female parts.

Card 22544.7.5concept
Question

What is the male part of a flower made of?

Answer

The **stamen** = an **anther** (makes pollen) on a **filament** (stalk).

Card 22554.7.5concept
Question

What is the female part of a flower made of?

Answer

The **carpel** = a **stigma** (catches pollen), a **style**, and an **ovary** containing **ovules**.

Card 22564.7.5concept
Question

What does the anther do?

Answer

It **makes and holds pollen grains**, which carry the male gametes.

Card 22574.7.5concept
Question

What does the stigma do?

Answer

It is the **sticky tip** that **catches and holds pollen** grains that land on it.

Card 22584.7.5definition
Question

Define pollination.

Answer

The **transfer of pollen from an anther to a stigma**.

Card 22594.7.5definition
Question

Define fertilization (in a plant).

Answer

The **fusion of a male gamete with the female gamete (egg)** inside the ovule, forming a zygote.

Card 22604.7.5concept
Question

Which comes first — pollination or fertilization?

Answer

**Pollination** first (pollen onto the stigma); **fertilization** second (gametes fuse in the ovule).

Card 22614.7.5concept
Question

How does the male gamete reach the ovule?

Answer

A **pollen tube grows down the style** from the pollen grain, carrying the male gamete to the ovule.

Card 22624.7.5concept
Question

What does the ovule become after fertilization?

Answer

A **seed** (containing the embryo and a food store).

Card 22634.7.5concept
Question

What does the ovary become after fertilization?

Answer

A **fruit**, which surrounds the seeds and helps disperse them.

Card 22644.7.5definition
Question

What are self-incompatibility alleles?

Answer

Alleles that make a plant's stigma **reject its own pollen**, so it cannot fertilise itself.

Card 22654.7.5concept
Question

Why do self-incompatibility alleles benefit a plant?

Answer

They **force cross-pollination**, which **increases genetic variation** in the offspring.

Card 22664.7.5concept
Question

Which plants are most likely to cross-pollinate?

Answer

Plants that **cannot fertilise themselves** — e.g. those with self-incompatibility or with male and female parts that mature at different times.

Card 22674.8.1definition
Question

Define a gene.

Answer

A **length of DNA that codes for one characteristic** (e.g. the gene for stem length).

Card 22684.8.1definition
Question

Define an allele.

Answer

One particular **version of a gene** (e.g. a 'tall' allele and a 'short' allele).

Card 22694.8.1definition
Question

Define genotype.

Answer

The **alleles an organism carries** for a gene — written as a pair of letters, e.g. **Tt**.

Card 22704.8.1definition
Question

Define phenotype.

Answer

The **observable characteristic** an organism shows, produced by its genotype (e.g. 'tall').

Card 22714.8.1definition
Question

What is a dominant allele, and how is it written?

Answer

An allele whose effect **shows with only one copy**; written as a **capital letter** (e.g. T).

Card 22724.8.1definition
Question

What is a recessive allele, and how is it written?

Answer

An allele whose effect **shows only with two copies**; written as a **small letter** (e.g. t).

Card 22734.8.1definition
Question

What does homozygous mean? Give examples.

Answer

Having **two of the same allele** for a gene — e.g. **TT** (homozygous dominant) or **tt** (homozygous recessive).

Card 22744.8.1definition
Question

What does heterozygous mean? Give an example.

Answer

Having **two different alleles** for a gene — e.g. **Tt**.

Card 22754.8.1concept
Question

Why is a recessive allele hidden in a heterozygote?

Answer

The **dominant allele is expressed and masks** the recessive one, so the recessive characteristic is not shown.

Card 22764.8.1concept
Question

When does a recessive phenotype appear?

Answer

Only in a **homozygous-recessive** organism (e.g. tt) — one with **no dominant allele** to mask the recessive one.

Card 22774.8.2definition
Question

What is a monohybrid cross?

Answer

A cross that follows the inheritance of **one gene** (with two alleles) from parents to offspring.

Card 22784.8.2concept
Question

Why does each gamete carry only one allele of a gene?

Answer

Because the two alleles **segregate** during meiosis — one goes into each gamete.

Card 22794.8.2concept
Question

What is the difference between genotype and phenotype?

Answer

**Genotype** = the alleles you carry (e.g. Bb); **phenotype** = the observable characteristic those alleles produce.

Card 22804.8.2concept
Question

What genotype and phenotype ratios come from Bb × Bb?

Answer

Genotype **1 BB : 2 Bb : 1 bb**; phenotype **3 dominant : 1 recessive**.

Card 22814.8.2concept
Question

Two carrier parents — what is the chance of an affected child?

Answer

**1/4 (25%)** each pregnancy, because only the homozygous-recessive (e.g. dd) cell is affected.

Card 22824.8.2concept
Question

Why can two unaffected parents have an affected child?

Answer

The disease allele is **recessive**: both parents are unaffected **carriers** (Dd), and if both pass on d the child is **dd** and affected.

Card 22834.8.2concept
Question

How do you turn a Punnett-grid ratio into a probability?

Answer

Each of the four cells is equally likely, so count the matching cells out of 4 (e.g. **1 in 4 = 1/4 = 25%**).

Card 22844.8.3definition
Question

Define incomplete dominance.

Answer

Neither allele is fully dominant, so the **heterozygote shows a new, intermediate (blended)** phenotype (e.g. red × white → **pink**).

Card 22854.8.3definition
Question

Define codominance.

Answer

Both alleles are **fully expressed at the same time** in the heterozygote — you see **both** phenotypes together (not a blend).

Card 22864.8.3definition
Question

What are multiple alleles?

Answer

A gene with **more than two** alleles in the population (e.g. ABO has **I^A, I^B and i**), though each individual still carries only **two**.

Card 22874.8.3concept
Question

F2 phenotype ratio from two pink (incomplete-dominance) flowers?

Answer

**1 red : 2 pink : 1 white** — the phenotype ratio equals the 1 : 2 : 1 genotype ratio because every genotype is visible.

Card 22884.8.3concept
Question

How do you tell incomplete dominance from codominance?

Answer

**Incomplete dominance** = a single **blended** phenotype. **Codominance** = **both** phenotypes shown **together** (side by side).

Card 22894.8.3concept
Question

Why are codominant/incomplete alleles written as capitals with superscripts (e.g. C^R, C^W)?

Answer

Because **neither allele is recessive**, so neither should be written lower case — superscripts keep them equal.

Card 22904.8.3concept
Question

Which ABO alleles are codominant, and which is recessive?

Answer

**I^A and I^B are codominant** (both expressed → group AB); both are **dominant to i**, which is **recessive** (group O = i i).

Card 22914.8.3concept
Question

Give the genotype(s) for each ABO blood group.

Answer

A = I^A I^A or I^A i; B = I^B I^B or I^B i; **AB = I^A I^B**; **O = i i**.

Card 22924.8.3concept
Question

Why is ABO blood group an example of discrete variation?

Answer

Each genotype maps to one of only **four separate groups** (A, B, AB, O) with **no in-betweens** — distinct categories, not a continuous range.

Card 22934.8.4concept
Question

What are the sex chromosomes in a human female and a human male?

Answer

**Female = XX**, **male = XY**.

Card 22944.8.4definition
Question

What are autosomes?

Answer

The **22 pairs of chromosomes that are not the sex chromosomes** — the same in males and females.

Card 22954.8.4concept
Question

Which parent's gamete determines the sex of a baby, and why?

Answer

The **father's sperm** — the egg always carries X, but a sperm carries **X or Y** (X→girl, Y→boy).

Card 22964.8.4definition
Question

What does 'sex-linked' mean?

Answer

The gene is carried on a **sex chromosome (usually the X)**, so its inheritance is tied to the offspring's sex.

Card 22974.8.4concept
Question

How do we write the alleles of an X-linked gene?

Answer

**On the X** — e.g. **Xᴮ** (dominant) and **Xᵇ** (recessive); the **Y has no matching allele**, written just **Y**.

Card 22984.8.4concept
Question

Why is an X-linked recessive condition more common in males?

Answer

Males have **only one X** and the **Y has no matching allele**, so a **single recessive allele shows**; a female needs it on **both** X chromosomes.

Card 22994.8.4definition
Question

What is a carrier (for an X-linked recessive condition)?

Answer

An **unaffected female (XᴮXᵇ)** who has one recessive allele, masked by the dominant allele on her other X; she can still pass it on.

Card 23004.8.4concept
Question

Deduce the possible genotypes of an unaffected female for colour blindness.

Answer

**XᴮXᴮ (homozygous dominant)** or **XᴮXᵇ (carrier)** — you usually can't tell which from her phenotype.

Card 23014.8.4concept
Question

In a carrier mother (XᴮXᵇ) × unaffected father (XᴮY) cross, who can be colour-blind?

Answer

Only **sons** — about **half** are colour-blind (XᵇY); **no daughter is affected**, though half are carriers.

Card 23024.8.5concept
Question

In a pedigree, what shapes are used for males and females?

Answer

**Square = male**, **circle = female**.

Card 23034.8.5concept
Question

In a pedigree, what does a filled (shaded) symbol mean?

Answer

The person is **affected** — they show the condition. A clear symbol means unaffected.

Card 23044.8.5definition
Question

What is a carrier?

Answer

An **unaffected** person who carries one copy of a recessive allele (e.g. genotype Dd) and can pass it on.

Card 23054.8.5concept
Question

How can you tell from a pedigree that a condition is recessive?

Answer

**Two unaffected parents have an affected child** — a dominant allele cannot hide in an unaffected parent.

Card 23064.8.5concept
Question

How can you tell from a pedigree that a condition is dominant?

Answer

The trait appears in **every generation** (no skipping) and affected children usually have an **affected parent**.

Card 23074.8.5concept
Question

How does a pedigree show an allele is NOT X-linked?

Answer

A father gives his **X to every daughter** and his **Y to every son** — so an **affected son** or an **unaffected daughter** of an affected father means the allele is **autosomal**.

Card 23084.8.5concept
Question

An affected father passes which sex chromosome to a son, and which to a daughter?

Answer

His **Y** to a son; his **X** to a daughter.

Card 23094.8.5concept
Question

An unaffected woman has a child with an autosomal recessive condition. What is her genotype?

Answer

She must be a **carrier (Dd)** — heterozygous.

Card 23104.8.5concept
Question

What is the genotype of someone affected by an autosomal dominant condition (allele D)?

Answer

**DD or Dd** — at least one dominant D allele.

Card 23114.8.5concept
Question

What do the Roman numerals (I, II, III) on a pedigree show?

Answer

Each **generation**, oldest at the **top**.

Card 23124.8.6definition
Question

What is a karyogram?

Answer

A chart of a cell's chromosomes **arranged in homologous pairs by size** (and banding pattern).

Card 23134.8.6concept
Question

What three things can a karyogram tell you?

Answer

The **chromosome number**, the **sex** (XX/XY), and whether any chromosome is **extra or missing**.

Card 23144.8.6concept
Question

How do you read the SEX from a human karyogram?

Answer

Look at the **last (23rd) pair**: **XX = female**, **XY = male** (a large X next to a small Y).

Card 23154.8.6concept
Question

How would you compare another species' karyogram with a human one?

Answer

Compare the **chromosome number**, the **relative sizes** of the chromosomes, and the **banding pattern**.

Card 23164.8.6definition
Question

What is a DNA profile (DNA fingerprint)?

Answer

A pattern of **DNA bands** that is almost **unique to an individual**, used to identify people and their relatives.

Card 23174.8.6concept
Question

State the golden rule for reading a parentage DNA profile.

Answer

**Every band in the child must match a band in one of its two parents** — a candidate missing a band is ruled out.

Card 23184.8.6concept
Question

How do you identify a father from a paternity DNA profile?

Answer

Remove the bands the child shares with the **mother**; the **true father must have all the remaining bands**.

Card 23194.8.6concept
Question

Name three ways sexual reproduction generates variation.

Answer

**Crossing over** and **independent assortment** in meiosis, plus **random fertilisation**.

Card 23204.8.6concept
Question

Why is every offspring (except identical twins) genetically unique?

Answer

Meiosis makes genetically different **gametes**, and **random fertilisation** combines two of them into a new mix of alleles.

Card 23214.9.1definition
Question

Define homeostasis.

Answer

Keeping the body's **internal environment** near a constant **set point**, despite changes outside.

Card 23224.9.1definition
Question

What is a 'set point'?

Answer

The **normal value** a regulated variable is held close to (e.g. ~37 °C core temperature, ~pH 7.4 blood).

Card 23234.9.1concept
Question

Name four blood/body variables kept constant by homeostasis.

Answer

**Blood glucose**, **temperature**, **blood pH**, and **water/solute balance**.

Card 23244.9.1definition
Question

Define negative feedback.

Answer

A control loop where the **response opposes the change**, returning the variable toward its set point.

Card 23254.9.1concept
Question

List the stages of a homeostatic control loop, in order.

Answer

**Stimulus → receptor → control centre → effector → response** (the response opposes the change).

Card 23264.9.1concept
Question

Why is it called NEGATIVE feedback?

Answer

Because the response acts in the **opposite direction** to the change — a rise triggers a fall, a fall triggers a rise.

Card 23274.9.1concept
Question

How does positive feedback differ from negative feedback?

Answer

Positive feedback **amplifies** the change (drives it further from normal); it is **not** homeostatic.

Card 23284.9.1concept
Question

Give one example of positive feedback in the body.

Answer

The **LH surge** before ovulation (or **oxytocin** in childbirth) — the change is amplified to drive a process to completion.

Card 23294.9.1concept
Question

Which brain structure is the control centre for several homeostatic loops?

Answer

The **hypothalamus** — it compares the variable with the set point and signals the effectors.

Card 23304.9.2definition
Question

What is thermoregulation?

Answer

Keeping the **core body temperature** close to a set point (about **37 °C**) despite changes in the environment.

Card 23314.9.2concept
Question

Which type of feedback controls body temperature?

Answer

**Negative feedback** — the response opposes the change and returns temperature to the set point.

Card 23324.9.2concept
Question

Which part of the brain is the temperature control centre?

Answer

The **hypothalamus** — it acts as the body's thermostat.

Card 23334.9.2concept
Question

What two responses cool the body when it is too HOT?

Answer

**Vasodilation** (skin arterioles widen → more heat radiated) and **sweating** (evaporation removes heat).

Card 23344.9.2concept
Question

What responses warm the body when it is too COLD?

Answer

**Vasoconstriction** (less heat lost), **shivering** (muscle respiration makes heat) and **non-shivering thermogenesis** in brown fat.

Card 23354.9.2concept
Question

What is the difference between vasodilation and vasoconstriction?

Answer

**Vasodilation** = skin arterioles widen to **lose** heat (too hot); **vasoconstriction** = they narrow to **conserve** heat (too cold).

Card 23364.9.2concept
Question

How does brown adipose tissue raise body temperature?

Answer

By **non-shivering thermogenesis** — it **oxidises lipids** and releases the energy **directly as heat**.

Card 23374.9.2concept
Question

How does shivering raise body temperature?

Answer

Rapid **skeletal-muscle contractions** increase **respiration**, releasing **heat**.

Card 23384.9.2concept
Question

Why is vasodilation a cooling response?

Answer

Widening the skin arterioles brings **more blood near the surface**, so **more heat is radiated/lost**.

Card 23394.9.2concept
Question

Is thermoregulation an example of positive or negative feedback, and why?

Answer

**Negative feedback** — the response (e.g. sweating, shivering) **opposes** the temperature change.

Card 23404.9.3concept
Question

Which organ monitors and controls blood glucose?

Answer

The **pancreas** — it secretes insulin and glucagon.

Card 23414.9.3concept
Question

Name the two hormones that regulate blood glucose.

Answer

**Insulin** (lowers high glucose) and **glucagon** (raises low glucose).

Card 23424.9.3concept
Question

What does insulin do, and when is it released?

Answer

Released when glucose is **too high**: it makes **liver and muscle cells take up glucose** and store it as **glycogen**, lowering blood glucose.

Card 23434.9.3concept
Question

What does glucagon do, and when is it released?

Answer

Released when glucose is **too low**: it makes the **liver break glycogen down** into glucose, raising blood glucose.

Card 23444.9.3definition
Question

What is glycogen?

Answer

The **storage form of glucose** (many glucose units), kept mainly in the **liver and muscles**.

Card 23454.9.3definition
Question

What does 'antagonistic hormones' mean here?

Answer

Insulin and glucagon have **opposite effects** — one lowers glucose, the other raises it.

Card 23464.9.3concept
Question

Why is blood glucose control negative feedback?

Answer

Each response **opposes the change** and returns glucose to its **set point**, holding it within narrow limits.

Card 23474.9.3concept
Question

On a graph, what explains blood glucose FALLING after a meal?

Answer

Glucose rose → **insulin** released → cells **take up and store** glucose as glycogen → glucose falls.

Card 23484.9.3concept
Question

Glucagon vs glycogen — what's the difference?

Answer

**Glucagon** is the **hormone** that raises glucose; **glycogen** is the **storage molecule**.

Card 23494.9.4concept
Question

What is the normal set point for blood pH?

Answer

About **pH 7.4** (slightly alkaline).

Card 23504.9.4concept
Question

Why does a rise in blood CO2 lower the blood pH?

Answer

CO2 dissolves to form **carbonic acid**, which releases **H+**, making the blood **more acidic** (lower pH).

Card 23514.9.4concept
Question

What detects a change in blood pH / CO2?

Answer

**Chemoreceptors** — in the **medulla** of the brain and in the walls of the **aorta** and **carotid arteries**.

Card 23524.9.4concept
Question

Which part of the brain controls breathing rate?

Answer

The **medulla** (in the brainstem).

Card 23534.9.4concept
Question

What does the body do when blood pH falls below 7.4?

Answer

It **increases ventilation rate and depth** (breathes faster and deeper) to **remove more CO2** and raise pH back to the set point.

Card 23544.9.4concept
Question

What does the body do when blood pH rises above 7.4?

Answer

It **decreases ventilation** so **CO2 is retained**, which lowers pH back to the set point.

Card 23554.9.4concept
Question

Why is blood-pH control an example of negative feedback?

Answer

Because the response **reverses the change** (pH down → breathe faster → CO2 removed → pH up) and then switches off at the set point.

Card 23564.9.4concept
Question

Which gas, not oxygen, mainly drives the urge to breathe?

Answer

**CO2** — rising CO2 (and falling pH) is what the chemoreceptors mainly sense.

Card 23574.9.5concept
Question

Which part of the brain is the appetite control centre?

Answer

The **hypothalamus**.

Card 23584.9.5concept
Question

What is the source, target and function of leptin?

Answer

Source: **adipose (fat) tissue**; target: the **hypothalamus**; function: **suppresses appetite**.

Card 23594.9.5concept
Question

Where is ghrelin made and what does it do?

Answer

Made by the **(empty) stomach**; it **stimulates appetite** (the 'hunger hormone').

Card 23604.9.5concept
Question

Name two hormones that suppress appetite and where they come from.

Answer

**Leptin** (from adipose/fat tissue) and **insulin** (from the pancreas).

Card 23614.9.5concept
Question

Why does more body fat lead to a stronger 'stop eating' signal?

Answer

More fat tissue secretes **more leptin**, which acts on the hypothalamus to **suppress appetite**.

Card 23624.9.5concept
Question

What does thyroxin do, and where is it made?

Answer

Made by the **thyroid gland**; it sets the **basal metabolic rate** (how fast cells use energy).

Card 23634.9.5concept
Question

A patient is tired, gaining weight and feels cold. Which hormone is likely low?

Answer

**Thyroxin** — too little lowers the metabolic rate, causing these symptoms.

Card 23645.1.1definition
Question

Define the independent variable.

Answer

The single factor you deliberately **change** (manipulate) — the cause you are testing. Plotted on the **x-axis**.

Card 23655.1.1definition
Question

Define the dependent variable.

Answer

The factor you **measure** as the outcome; it **depends on** the independent variable. Plotted on the **y-axis**.

Card 23665.1.1definition
Question

Define a controlled variable.

Answer

A factor kept **constant** in every trial so it cannot affect the result — this keeps the test **fair**.

Card 23675.1.1concept
Question

Controlled variable vs control treatment — what's the difference?

Answer

A **controlled variable** is a factor held **constant**. A **control treatment** is a whole **baseline run** with the tested factor **absent**, used for comparison.

Card 23685.1.1concept
Question

Why must you change only ONE independent variable?

Answer

If two things change together you get a **confounding variable** — you can't tell which factor caused the result, so the test is **invalid**.

Card 23695.1.1concept
Question

What is the percentage-change formula (treatment vs control)?

Answer

$\%\ \text{change} = \dfrac{\text{final} - \text{initial}}{\text{initial}} \times 100$. Use the **control** value as the 'initial'.

Card 23705.1.1concept
Question

How should you name a controlled variable in the exam?

Answer

**Specifically**, with its quantity (e.g. 'temperature at 22 °C', 'volume of solution'), never 'keep everything the same'.

Card 23715.1.10definition
Question

State the equation for an Rf value.

Answer

$R_f = \dfrac{\text{distance moved by the pigment}}{\text{distance moved by the solvent}}$ — both measured from the start line. It has **no units** and is always between **0 and 1**.

Card 23725.1.10concept
Question

A pigment moves 45 mm; the solvent moves 90 mm. What is the Rf?

Answer

Rf = 45 ÷ 90 = **0.50** (no units, because it is a ratio of two lengths).

Card 23735.1.10concept
Question

On a chromatogram, which pigment is the most soluble?

Answer

The one that travels **furthest** — it has the **highest Rf**. The lowest Rf is the least soluble.

Card 23745.1.10concept
Question

How do quadrats let you estimate a whole population?

Answer

Count in several quadrats, take a **mean per quadrat**, find the **density (number per m²)**, then **scale up** to the total habitat area. Using a mean of many quadrats improves reliability.

Card 23755.1.10concept
Question

What does gel electrophoresis separate, and how?

Answer

It separates **DNA fragments by SIZE**: DNA is negatively charged, so an electric field pulls it through the gel and the **smallest fragments travel furthest**.

Card 23765.1.10definition
Question

Which technique amplifies DNA, and which instrument measures respiration rate?

Answer

**PCR** amplifies (copies) DNA; a **respirometer** measures respiration rate (oxygen used per unit time).

Card 23775.1.2definition
Question

What is a replicate, and why take several?

Answer

A **replicate** is one repeat of the same measurement. Several let you take a **mean** (reducing random error), **spot anomalies**, and check the result is **repeatable**.

Card 23785.1.2concept
Question

How do you make a result more reliable?

Answer

**Repeat each measurement more times and take the mean.** More replicates even out random error and make an anomaly stand out.

Card 23795.1.2definition
Question

Formula: the mean of a set of repeats?

Answer

$\bar{x} = \dfrac{\sum x}{n}$ — add the readings and divide by how many there are. The spread (range $=$ max $-$ min, or the standard deviation) shows how reliable the repeats are: small spread = reliable.

Card 23805.1.2concept
Question

Reliable vs valid vs accurate?

Answer

**Reliable** = repeats of the same method agree. **Valid** = a fair test of the claim (a control + only one variable changed). **Accurate** = close to the true value.

Card 23815.1.2concept
Question

How do you spot an anomaly?

Answer

It sits **far outside the other repeats**. You re-check it or leave it out of the mean — which is only possible because you took several repeats.

Card 23825.1.2concept
Question

How do you EVALUATE whether data support a claim?

Answer

State **what the data show** (e.g. the means differ), then **weigh it against the limitations** (small sample, big spread/overlap, no control) for a **balanced** judgement.

Card 23835.1.2concept
Question

What makes an improvement answer score the mark?

Answer

A **fix PLUS a matched reason** — e.g. 'more replicates **so the mean is more reliable**' or 'add a control **so the effect is shown to be due to the variable**'. A bare fix scores half.

Card 23845.1.3concept
Question

What is the magnification formula?

Answer

$M = \dfrac{\text{image size}}{\text{actual size}}$ — both in the **same unit**. It's a ratio, so it has **no units** (write $\times N$).

Card 23855.1.3concept
Question

How do you calculate a real (actual) size?

Answer

Rearrange the triangle: $\text{actual} = \dfrac{\text{image size}}{M}$. Convert to one unit, then **divide the image size by the magnification**.

Card 23865.1.3concept
Question

How do you use a scale bar to find magnification?

Answer

Measure the bar on the image (e.g. $40\text{ mm} = 40\,000\ \mu\text{m}$), read the real distance it represents (e.g. $80\ \mu\text{m}$), then $M = 40\,000 \div 80 = \times 500$.

Card 23875.1.3concept
Question

How do you convert mm to µm (and why)?

Answer

**Multiply by 1000** ($1\text{ mm} = 1000\ \mu\text{m}$). Image lengths are in mm but cells are in µm — match units **before** dividing or you'll be 1000× out.

Card 23885.1.3concept
Question

If each division on an image is 2.5 µm and a cell spans 20 divisions, how long is it?

Answer

Real size = divisions × µm per division = $20 \times 2.5 = 50\ \mu\text{m}$.

Card 23895.1.3definition
Question

What equipment measures a cell's size down the microscope?

Answer

An **eyepiece graticule**, calibrated against a **stage micrometer** (not a plain ruler).

Card 23905.1.4concept
Question

How do you 'read off' a value from a graph?

Answer

Find the **x-value**, go **up to the curve**, **across to the y-axis**, read the height — and write it **with its unit**.

Card 23915.1.4definition
Question

Interpolate vs extrapolate?

Answer

**Interpolate** = estimate a value **between** plotted points (safe). **Extrapolate** = predict a value **beyond** the data (a prediction — the trend may not hold).

Card 23925.1.4concept
Question

Estimating y between two points — what's the quick method?

Answer

Take roughly the **midpoint** of the neighbouring readings, e.g. $y \approx \dfrac{30 + 42}{2} = 36$ (with the unit).

Card 23935.1.4concept
Question

What must a full 'describe the trend' answer contain?

Answer

**Direction first** (rises/falls), then the **change of pattern** (plateau or peak), each backed by **figures** from the graph.

Card 23945.1.4concept
Question

What must a 'compare and contrast' answer contain?

Answer

At least **one similarity AND one difference** between the series, each supported by a **value** from the data.

Card 23955.1.4concept
Question

What does a 'predict' answer need besides a value?

Answer

A **reason** drawn from the trend — and you should flag it as a prediction (extrapolation), since the trend might change.

Card 23965.1.4concept
Question

Why is '44' wrong but '44 µmol min⁻¹' right?

Answer

A value with **no unit** scores nothing — always quote the **unit** read from the axis.

Card 23975.1.5concept
Question

Formula: percentage change

Answer

$\% \text{ change} = \dfrac{\text{new} - \text{old}}{\text{old}} \times 100$ — always divide the CHANGE by the OLD value. A negative answer is a percentage decrease.

Card 23985.1.5concept
Question

Formula: rate from a graph

Answer

rate $= \dfrac{\text{change in quantity}}{\text{time}} = \dfrac{\text{rise}}{\text{run}}$ — the GRADIENT of the line. Take two points and divide; always write the units.

Card 23995.1.5concept
Question

Formula: ratio / index

Answer

ratio = part ÷ whole, e.g. mitotic index $= \dfrac{\text{dividing cells}}{\text{total cells}}$. Can be a fraction, decimal, percentage or A : B.

Card 24005.1.5concept
Question

Percentage change vs 'percentage of'

Answer

**% change** = (new − old) ÷ old × 100 (how much it moved). **% of** = part ÷ whole × 100 (what share it is). Read which one the question asks.

Card 24015.1.5definition
Question

How do you find the range of a data set?

Answer

range = largest value − smallest value.

Card 24025.1.5concept
Question

Why must a rate have units?

Answer

A rate is a quantity PER unit time; without the unit (e.g. cm³ s⁻¹, breaths min⁻¹) it is incomplete and loses the mark.

Card 24035.1.6definition
Question

What is the formula for the mean?

Answer

$\bar{x} = \dfrac{\sum x}{n}$ — **add all the values and divide by how many there are** ($n$). The mean keeps the same units as the data.

Card 24045.1.6concept
Question

Mean vs median vs mode?

Answer

**Mean** = add-up-and-divide average. **Median** = the **middle** value in order. **Mode** = the **most common** value (tallest bar on a frequency graph).

Card 24055.1.6definition
Question

What does standard deviation (s) measure?

Answer

How **spread out** the data are around the mean. **Small s** = tightly clustered; **large s** = widely scattered. You find it on your GDC, not by hand.

Card 24065.1.6definition
Question

What does an error bar represent?

Answer

The **spread** of the data — usually **± one standard deviation** about the mean. Its total height = 2s; a longer bar means more spread (less reliable).

Card 24075.1.6concept
Question

State the overlap rule for error bars.

Answer

Error bars **OVERLAP → difference NOT significant**. Error bars with a **clear gap (no overlap) → difference IS significant**.

Card 24085.1.6concept
Question

On a box-and-whisker plot, what are the key features?

Answer

**Median** = line inside the box; **box** = lower quartile (Q1) to upper quartile (Q3) = middle 50%; **whiskers** = min and max; a **separate point** = an **outlier**.

Card 24095.1.7concept
Question

Which test compares counts against an expected ratio (or tests an association)?

Answer

The **chi-squared (χ²) test** — it is for **counts/frequencies**, e.g. testing a 3:1 genetic ratio.

Card 24105.1.7concept
Question

Which test compares two means of a measured variable?

Answer

The **t-test** — use it to ask whether **two averages** are significantly different.

Card 24115.1.7definition
Question

What is the chi-squared formula?

Answer

$\chi^2 = \sum \dfrac{(O-E)^2}{E}$ — where **O** = observed count, **E** = expected count; add one term per category.

Card 24125.1.7concept
Question

How do you decide if a result is statistically significant?

Answer

Compare the **calculated** statistic to the **critical value** at **p = 0.05**: if **calculated ≥ critical**, it is **significant** (p < 0.05) → reject H₀.

Card 24135.1.7definition
Question

What are the null (H₀) and alternative (H₁) hypotheses?

Answer

**H₀**: there is **no** real difference/association (any difference is chance). **H₁**: there **is** a real difference/association.

Card 24145.1.7concept
Question

What do overlapping error bars suggest about two means?

Answer

That the means are **probably not significantly different** — a t-test would give t below the critical value (p > 0.05).

Card 24155.1.7concept
Question

How do you find degrees of freedom?

Answer

For **χ²**: (number of categories − 1). For a **t-test of two groups**: $df = n_1 + n_2 - 2$. The df picks the row of the critical-value table.

Card 24165.1.8concept
Question

Positive vs negative correlation?

Answer

**Positive**: as one variable rises, the other **rises** (line slopes up). **Negative**: as one rises, the other **falls** (line slopes down).

Card 24175.1.8concept
Question

What does the correlation coefficient r tell you, and what is its range?

Answer

It measures a linear correlation from **−1 to +1**: the **sign** = direction (+ together, − opposite) and the **size** (how close to ±1) = **strength**. $r ≈ 0$ = no linear relationship.

Card 24185.1.8concept
Question

How is the coefficient of determination R² related to r?

Answer

**$R^2 = r^2$.** It is the **fraction (or %) of the variation** in y explained by x. e.g. $r = 0.9 → R^2 = 0.81 →$ ~81% explained. Given R², $r = \pm\sqrt{R^2}$.

Card 24195.1.8concept
Question

Why does correlation NOT prove causation?

Answer

A **third (confounding) variable** or coincidence could cause both. Only a **controlled experiment** can establish that one variable causes a change in another.

Card 24205.1.8concept
Question

How do you DESCRIBE a relationship shown by a graph?

Answer

State the **direction** (positive/negative correlation) **and** quote a **figure/comparison** from the data — not just 'there is a relationship'.

Card 24215.1.8concept
Question

r = −0.9 vs r = +0.9 — which is stronger?

Answer

**Equally strong** — strength depends on $|r|$ (how close to 1), not the sign. They differ only in **direction**.

Card 24225.1.9concept
Question

State Simpson's reciprocal diversity index formula.

Answer

$D = \dfrac{N(N-1)}{\sum n(n-1)}$ — where $N$ = total individuals (all species) and $n$ = individuals of each species. Higher $D$ = more diverse (minimum 1).

Card 24235.1.9concept
Question

State the Lincoln (capture–mark–recapture) index formula.

Answer

$N = \dfrac{n_1 \times n_2}{n_3}$ — $n_1$ = marked & released, $n_2$ = second catch, $n_3$ = marked individuals in the second catch, $N$ = estimated total.

Card 24245.1.9definition
Question

In Simpson's index, what are $N$ and $n$?

Answer

$N$ = the TOTAL number of individuals of ALL species added together; $n$ = the number of individuals of ONE particular species.

Card 24255.1.9concept
Question

Two communities have the same number of species — why might their $D$ differ?

Answer

Because $D$ also depends on **evenness**. A community dominated by one species has a LOWER $D$ than one where individuals are spread evenly.

Card 24265.1.9concept
Question

Name two assumptions of the Lincoln index.

Answer

Marks don't harm the animals or change catchability; marked animals mix back fully; no births, deaths or migration between samples; marks aren't lost.

Card 24275.1.9concept
Question

How do you use Simpson's index to measure biodiversity CHANGE over time?

Answer

Sample the same site with the same method each year, calculate $D$ each time, and compare — a rising $D$ means biodiversity is increasing.

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