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Define a polar molecule.
A molecule with an **uneven spread of charge** — a slightly negative end and a slightly positive end.
Define a covalent bond.
A bond in which two atoms **share a pair of electrons**.
What is electronegativity?
How strongly an atom **pulls shared electrons** toward itself.
In water, which atom is δ− and why?
**Oxygen** — it is more electronegative, so it pulls the shared electrons closer.
In water, which atoms are δ+?
The **two hydrogen** atoms.
What does δ (delta) mean on an atom?
A **partial** (slight) charge — much smaller than a full ionic charge.
What is the approximate H–O–H bond angle?
About **104.5°** — the molecule is **bent**.
Why is a whole water molecule polar (not just its bonds)?
Its **bent shape** means the partial charges **do not cancel** — they act on the same side.
What type of bond joins O and H within a water molecule?
A **polar covalent** bond (electrons shared, but unequally).
Why does water's polarity matter biologically?
It lets water molecules attract each other and other charged particles — the basis of water's life-supporting properties.
Define a hydrogen bond (in water).
A **weak attraction** between a **δ+ hydrogen** of one water molecule and a **δ− oxygen** of another molecule.
Does a hydrogen bond act within or between water molecules?
**Between** separate water molecules (a covalent bond acts **within** one molecule).
Which two parts attract to form a hydrogen bond?
A **δ+ hydrogen** of one molecule and a **δ− oxygen** of a neighbouring molecule.
Why can water molecules form hydrogen bonds at all?
Because each molecule is **polar** — it has a δ− oxygen and δ+ hydrogens.
Is a hydrogen bond weak or strong compared with a covalent bond?
**Weak** — much weaker than a covalent bond.
If each hydrogen bond is weak, why do they matter?
Because there are a **huge number** of them, so a **lot of energy** is needed to separate the water molecules.
Define a covalent bond.
A **strong** bond **within** a molecule, where atoms **share a pair of electrons** (the O–H bonds in water).
How is a hydrogen bond drawn in a diagram?
As a **dashed line** from a δ+ hydrogen of one molecule to the δ− oxygen of another, labelled **'hydrogen bond'**.
Why is water liquid at room temperature when methane is a gas?
Water forms **many hydrogen bonds** that hold its molecules together; methane is **non-polar** and forms none.
Name two of water's properties that come from hydrogen bonding.
High **boiling point**, **cohesion** (and a high **heat capacity**) — any two.
Can one water molecule hydrogen-bond to more than one neighbour?
Yes — each molecule can hydrogen-bond to **several** neighbours at once.
What does δ (delta) mean on an atom?
A **partial** (slight) charge — much smaller than a full ionic charge.
Define cohesion.
The attraction of water molecules to **other water molecules** (water sticking to itself).
Define adhesion.
The attraction of water molecules to a **different surface** (water sticking to something else).
Define surface tension.
A 'skin-like' effect at the water surface, caused by **cohesion** pulling the surface molecules together.
What causes cohesion and adhesion?
**Hydrogen bonding** between water molecules, which happens because water is **polar**.
Which property lets a pond skater walk on water?
**Surface tension** (produced by **cohesion**).
Water climbing the walls of a narrow xylem vessel is an example of…?
**Adhesion** — water sticking to a different surface.
How does cohesion help transport in plants?
It holds water in an **unbroken column** in the xylem, so water can be pulled up from roots to leaves.
How does adhesion help transport in plants?
Water sticks to the **walls** of the narrow xylem vessels, helping support and lift the water column.
What is the cohesion–tension mechanism?
Cohesion + adhesion together let an unbroken water column be **pulled up the xylem** from roots to leaves.
Cohesion or adhesion: water spreading out and wetting a leaf?
**Adhesion** — the water sticks to the leaf surface.
Cohesion or adhesion: surface tension on a pond?
**Cohesion** — water molecules pulling on each other at the surface.
Why is each hydrogen bond weak but water still cohesive?
Each bond is weak, but there are **so many** of them that together they hold the molecules tightly.
Define specific heat capacity.
The amount of **heat needed to change the temperature** of a substance. Water's is **high**, so its temperature changes slowly.
Why does water have a high specific heat capacity?
Heating it must **break/stretch many hydrogen bonds** between the polar molecules, which takes a lot of energy.
Define heat of vaporisation.
The **heat needed to turn a liquid into vapour**. Water's is high, so evaporation removes a lot of heat.
What is evaporative cooling?
Cooling caused because **evaporating water carries heat away** from the surface left behind (e.g. sweating).
How does sweating cool an organism?
Evaporating the sweat **takes heat from the skin** (high heat of vaporisation), lowering body temperature.
Define thermal conductivity.
How well a material **lets heat pass through it**. Water conducts heat well, so it draws heat from a warm body.
Why does a seal need blubber in cold water?
Water's **high thermal conductivity** makes it lose body heat fast; **blubber insulates** against this.
Why is an aquatic habitat thermally stable?
Water's **high specific heat capacity** means its temperature changes only slowly, day and night.
What single cause underlies water's thermal properties?
The **hydrogen bonds** between polar water molecules — breaking them costs energy.
Compare temperature change in water vs air given the same heat.
**Water changes far less** (high specific heat capacity); **air swings more widely**.
Which property explains why land cools faster than the sea at night?
Water's **high specific heat capacity** — the sea releases a lot of heat for only a small temperature drop.
Name water's three biologically important thermal properties.
High **specific heat capacity**, high **heat of vaporisation**, and high **thermal conductivity**.
Define solvent.
A liquid that **dissolves** another substance to form a solution. In cells the solvent is **water**.
Define solute.
A substance that **dissolves** in a solvent.
Why is water a good solvent?
It is **polar** — its δ+ and δ− ends are attracted to charged/polar particles and surround them, pulling them into solution.
Which kinds of substance dissolve in water?
**Polar** molecules (e.g. glucose, amino acids) and **ionic** substances (salts, mineral ions).
Which kinds of substance do NOT dissolve in water?
**Non-polar** substances such as **fats and oils** (no charged parts for water to grip).
Define hydrophilic.
“Water-loving” — a **polar/charged** substance that **dissolves** in water.
Define hydrophobic.
“Water-fearing” — a **non-polar** substance that does **not** dissolve in water.
Name two life processes that depend on water being a solvent.
**Metabolism** (reactions between dissolved solutes) and **transport** (carrying dissolved substances).
How are dissolved substances transported in plants?
In **xylem** (water + dissolved minerals) and **phloem** (dissolved sugars).
How does a mineral element pass along a food chain?
It is taken up by plants as **ions dissolved in soil water**, then passed to **animals that eat the plants**.
Why can a copper shortage in soil cause a deficiency in a grazing animal?
Low soil copper → grass takes up **little copper** → the animal eats that grass and takes in **too little copper**.
Why must a mineral dissolve before a plant takes it up?
Roots absorb minerals as **ions in solution**, so the mineral must first **dissolve** in the soil water.
What is the monomer of DNA and RNA called?
A **nucleotide**.
Define a nucleotide.
The monomer of a nucleic acid: a **phosphate group**, a **pentose sugar** and a **nitrogenous base** joined together.
What are the three parts of a nucleotide?
A **phosphate group**, a **pentose (5-carbon) sugar**, and a **nitrogenous base**.
Which sugar is in a DNA nucleotide?
**Deoxyribose**.
Which sugar is in an RNA nucleotide?
**Ribose**.
Which base is found in DNA but not RNA?
**Thymine (T)**.
Which base is found in RNA but not DNA?
**Uracil (U)** — it replaces thymine.
Which bases are found in both DNA and RNA?
**Adenine (A), cytosine (C) and guanine (G)**.
How many strands does DNA have? And RNA?
DNA is **double**-stranded (two); RNA is **single**-stranded (one).
Name the three structural differences between DNA and RNA.
**Sugar** (deoxyribose vs ribose), **one base** (thymine vs uracil), and **number of strands** (double vs single).
What is a nitrogenous base?
The **information-carrying** part of a nucleotide — A, C, G and either T (DNA) or U (RNA).
In a nucleotide, what does the sugar join to?
The sugar sits in the **middle** — joined to the **phosphate** on one side and the **base** on the other.
What shape is a DNA molecule?
A **double helix** — two strands twisted around each other.
Define complementary base pairing.
The rule that **A pairs only with T**, and **G pairs only with C**, on the two DNA strands.
Which base pairs with adenine?
**Thymine (T)**.
Which base pairs with guanine?
**Cytosine (C)**.
What kind of bond holds a base pair together?
**Hydrogen bonds** (between the two bases).
How many hydrogen bonds hold an A–T pair? A G–C pair?
**A–T has 2**; **G–C has 3**.
Which parts of DNA are joined across the helix — bases or backbones?
The **bases** (by hydrogen bonds). The sugar–phosphate backbones are not joined to each other.
What does 'antiparallel' mean for DNA strands?
The two strands run in **opposite directions** to each other.
State Chargaff's rule.
In DNA, **%A = %T** and **%G = %C**.
If a DNA sample is 22% cytosine, what % is guanine?
**22%** — because %G = %C.
If A is 30%, what is the combined % of G and C?
A = T = 30%, so A+T = 60%, leaving **40%** shared by G and C (20% each).
Who proposed the double-helix model, and using whose data?
**Watson and Crick**, using X-ray data from **Rosalind Franklin**.
Where in DNA is the genetic information stored?
In the **sequence (order) of the bases** A, T, C and G along the molecule.
Why can DNA store so much information?
It is a **long** molecule using a **4-letter** code, so the bases can be ordered in an **enormous** number of ways.
Define base sequence.
The **order of the bases** (A, T, C, G) along a DNA strand — this order is the stored information.
What makes DNA a STABLE information store?
Its two **complementary strands** back each other up, and the bases sit protected inside the double helix.
Define a histone.
A **protein** that **DNA wraps around** to package (condense) it inside eukaryotic cells.
What do histones do?
DNA **wraps around** them to **package / condense** the long molecule so it fits inside the cell.
Define a chromosome.
A single long **DNA molecule wound around histones** and condensed into a compact, organised structure.
Why must DNA be packaged?
The DNA molecule is **very long** (about 2 m per human cell) but the cell is tiny, so it must be **condensed** to fit and be protected.
Which organisms package DNA with histones?
**Eukaryotes** (plants, animals, fungi). Most **prokaryotes do not** use histones.
Is it the number of bases or their order that stores the message?
The **order (sequence)** — rearranging the bases changes the message, like rearranging letters changes a word.
How is DNA wound around histones described?
Like **thread around a spool** — the long thread winds up tightly and condenses.
Do histones read or copy the DNA?
**No** — histones only **package** the DNA. Reading and copying are done by other molecules.
Define a genome.
**All of the DNA** of an organism — its complete set of genetic instructions.
What is whole genome sequencing?
Determining the **full order of bases** (A, T, C, G) across an organism's **entire genome**.
Genome vs gene — what is the difference?
A **gene** is one instruction; a **genome** is the **whole instruction book** (all genes + the DNA between).
Does a bigger genome mean a more complex organism?
**No** — some plants and amphibians have larger genomes than humans but are not more complex.
Why does a large genome not mean more complexity?
Much of the extra DNA is **non-coding** — it does not code for proteins.
What is the universal genetic code?
The same DNA bases code for the **same amino acids** in (almost) **every** living thing.
How does the universal code support common ancestry?
All life inheriting the **same code** is best explained by descent from a **common ancestor**.
Which cell could supply a complete copy of the human genome?
The nucleus of **almost any single body cell** (e.g. a white blood cell).
Why is a gamete NOT a complete copy of the genome?
A gamete (egg or sperm) carries only **half** the genome.
Give two present-day uses of whole genome sequencing.
**Diagnosing genetic disease / personalising treatment**, and **comparing genomes to map how species are related**.
Give one ethical concern about genome sequencing.
Concerns over **privacy** and how a person's **genetic data** is stored and used.
What does a 'Discuss' answer on sequencing need?
**Benefits AND a limitation/ethical concern**, then a clear overall **judgement**.
Why is the cell called the unit of life?
It is the **smallest self-sustaining unit of life** — it can take in materials, release energy, grow and reproduce on its own. All known life is **cellular**.
When and how did the first cells arise?
About **3.5–4 billion years ago**, by **abiogenesis** (life from non-living chemistry) on the early Earth — a **unique, one-off** series of events.
Define biogenesis.
Living cells arise **only from pre-existing living cells** — the rule we observe **today**.
Define abiogenesis.
Living matter arising from **non-living chemistry** — required for the **first** cell, under early-Earth conditions.
How did early-Earth conditions differ from today?
**No free oxygen** (reducing atmosphere), **no ozone** (so **intense UV**), **volcanic gases** (CH₄, NH₃, H₂O, CO₂), **lightning**, **high temperatures**, and **liquid water**.
Why did a lack of free oxygen help the first organic molecules?
With **no oxygen**, the molecules were **not destroyed by oxidation**, so they could **build up** instead of breaking down.
List the four stages from non-living matter to the first cell, in order.
1) organic **monomers**, 2) **polymers**, 3) **self-replicating** molecules, 4) **membrane-bound protocells**.
What does 'abiotic' synthesis mean?
Organic molecules forming **without any living organisms** — by chemistry from **inorganic** precursors plus energy.
Define a monomer.
A small **building-block** molecule; many monomers join to make a **polymer** (e.g. amino acids → proteins).
What gas mixture did Miller and Urey use?
A **reducing** mix of **methane (CH₄), ammonia (NH₃), hydrogen (H₂) and water vapour** — modelling the early atmosphere.
What did the Miller-Urey experiment produce, and what did it show?
It produced **amino acids** and other organic monomers, showing that organic molecules can form **abiotically**, without life.
Name two proposed sources of organic molecules OTHER than the early atmosphere.
**Deep-sea hydrothermal vents** (mineral-catalysed synthesis) and **extraterrestrial delivery** on meteorites (e.g. the **Murchison** meteorite).
Why must monomers form before polymers?
Polymers are **chains of monomers**, so the building blocks must exist **first** — this is **step 1** of the origin of cells.
Why did a reducing (oxygen-free) atmosphere matter for prebiotic synthesis?
Free **oxygen** would destroy organic molecules, so the lack of oxygen let the new monomers **survive and accumulate**.
What is a protocell?
A simple **membrane-bound droplet** that forms by itself in water — a key **step between organic chemistry and true cells**, but **not yet alive**.
How do protocell membranes form, and do they need enzymes?
**Phospholipids (and fatty acids) self-assemble** into a **bilayer vesicle** in water **spontaneously** — **no enzymes** are needed.
What drives phospholipid self-assembly into a bilayer?
The **hydrophobic effect** — the water-hating **tails** are pushed together away from water while the **heads** face the water, so a bilayer forms and seals into a vesicle.
Define compartmentalisation.
Using a **membrane** to separate an **internal space** — with its own contents and chemistry — from the surroundings.
Give the advantages a compartment (membrane) gives a protocell.
It **concentrates reactants** (faster reactions), **retains products**, gives a **different internal chemistry**, and **protects self-replicating molecules**.
Why was compartmentalisation naturally selected?
Droplets that concentrated reactants and protected their replicators **reacted faster and reproduced more**, so their type became **more common** — natural selection before true life.
Why is a protocell not considered alive?
It has a membrane and an inside, but it **lacks reliable heredity** — it cannot copy its contents **accurately**, so it is only a stepping stone to true cells.
Why does heredity require a self-replicating molecule?
Because evolution needs **inherited variation** — information can only be passed on if the molecule carrying it can be **copied**.
Which molecule is the strongest candidate for the first self-replicating molecule?
**RNA** — the early stage when it did both jobs is called the **RNA world**.
What two things can RNA do that make it special?
**Store genetic information** (its base sequence is a code) AND **act as a catalyst** (**ribozymes**).
What is a ribozyme?
An **RNA molecule that acts as a catalyst** — it folds up and speeds up reactions, the way a protein enzyme does.
Why did DNA take over information storage?
DNA is **double-stranded** → **more stable** and easier to repair → a **lower mutation rate**, so information is kept more reliably.
Why did proteins take over catalysis?
Proteins are built from **20 amino acids** (vs RNA's **4 bases**) → far more chemical variety → far more **versatile catalysts**.
Give one piece of evidence that RNA came first.
The **ribosome's catalytic core is a ribozyme (rRNA)** — the protein-building machine is itself run by RNA. (Also: translation uses mRNA/tRNA/rRNA; ATP & NAD are ribonucleotides.)
What is the proposed order of events?
**RNA world** → **DNA** takes over **information storage** → **proteins** take over **catalysis**.
What does LUCA stand for, and what is it?
The **Last Universal Common Ancestor** — the single ancestral population from which **all life alive today** descends.
Is LUCA the first cell ever?
No — it is the **LAST** (most recent) common ancestor of all surviving life. Earlier cells almost certainly existed.
Name the shared features that are evidence for LUCA.
A near-universal **genetic code**, **DNA/RNA**, **ATP** as energy currency, **ribosomes**, and **common metabolic pathways** — all best explained by **common ancestry**.
How is the age of LUCA estimated?
By comparing DNA/protein **sequences** and using the **molecular clock**, giving roughly **4 billion years ago** (likely at hydrothermal vents).
State the endosymbiotic theory for mitochondria.
A host cell **engulfed a free-living aerobic bacterium** that **survived inside** as an endosymbiont and became the **mitochondrion**.
What are the four pieces of evidence for endosymbiosis?
Mitochondria/chloroplasts have their own **circular DNA**, **70S ribosomes**, a **double membrane**, and divide by **binary fission** — all bacterial features.
Which bacterium gave rise to chloroplasts?
A photosynthetic **cyanobacterium** — engulfed and kept as an endosymbiont. (An aerobic bacterium gave the mitochondrion.)
State the three points of cell theory.
All living things are made of **cells**; the **cell is the basic unit** of life; new cells come only from **pre-existing cells**.
Define spontaneous generation.
The (disproved) idea that living organisms can form from **non-living material**.
How did Pasteur disprove spontaneous generation?
Broth in a **swan-neck flask** stayed clear; only when the neck was **broken** (letting air-borne microbes in) did it go cloudy — so cells come from cells.
What does cell theory say is the smallest unit of life?
The **cell** — there is no smaller living unit.
List the seven functions of life.
**Metabolism, Reproduction, Sensitivity, Growth, Respiration, Excretion, Nutrition** (MRS GREN).
What is the memory aid for the functions of life?
**MRS GREN**.
Define excretion.
The removal of the **waste products of metabolism** from a cell or organism.
Define nutrition.
Taking in (or making) the **food and nutrients** an organism needs.
What is a unicellular organism?
An organism made of a **single cell** that carries out **all seven functions of life** by itself.
Why must a single cell perform all functions of life?
It is a complete organism with **no other cells to help**, so that one cell must do every job needed to stay alive.
Why must even a single cell excrete?
Its **metabolism produces waste** (e.g. CO₂) that would **build up and become toxic** if not removed.
Which function of life is 'responding to stimuli'?
**Sensitivity**.
Define magnification.
How many **times bigger** the image looks than the real object.
Define resolution.
The ability to show two close points as **separate** — in short, how much **fine detail** can be seen.
How are magnification and resolution different?
Magnification = how much **bigger**; resolution = how much **detail**. Magnifying a blurry image just makes a bigger blur.
What does a light microscope use to form an image?
A beam of **light**.
What does an electron microscope use to form an image?
A beam of **electrons**.
Which microscope can view living, moving cells?
The **light microscope** — electron samples are killed and prepared first.
Which microscope has the higher resolution?
The **electron microscope** — much higher resolution than the light microscope.
How did the electron microscope advance cell biology?
Its **higher resolution** revealed **organelles and ultrastructure** not visible with the light microscope.
Define ultrastructure.
The **fine internal detail** of a cell (e.g. membranes, ribosomes) that only the electron microscope can reveal.
What is cryo-EM?
**Cryogenic electron microscopy** — it **freezes** a sample to capture a sharp snapshot of proteins and delicate structures.
Which imaging technique freezes a sample to snapshot a protein?
**Cryo-EM** (a type of electron microscopy).
One drawback of the electron microscope?
The sample must be **killed and specially prepared**, so you cannot view living cells.
Name the four structures common to ALL cells.
**DNA, cytoplasm, plasma membrane and ribosomes** (memory hook: D-C-M-R).
Define an organelle.
A **specialised structure inside a cell** that carries out a **particular function** (for example a ribosome or nucleus).
Which universal structure is also an organelle?
**Ribosomes** — found in all cells and counting as an organelle.
What does DNA do in a cell?
It is the **genetic material** — the cell's stored instructions.
What is cytoplasm?
The **watery jelly** inside the cell where chemical reactions take place.
What does the plasma membrane do?
It is the cell's **outer boundary**, controlling what **enters and leaves**.
What is the function of ribosomes?
They **build proteins** by joining amino acids together.
Is a nucleus common to all cells? Why?
**No** — prokaryotic cells have **no nucleus**; their DNA floats free in the cytoplasm.
Name an organelle in which a DNA base pair could be located.
The **nucleus** (in eukaryotes). **Mitochondria** also contain DNA, and **chloroplasts** do in plant cells.
Where is the DNA in a prokaryotic cell?
Free in the **cytoplasm**, in a region called the **nucleoid** — there is no nucleus.
Name two structures that are NOT found in every cell.
Any two of: **nucleus, cell wall, mitochondria, chloroplasts** (these are not universal).
Define a prokaryotic cell.
A cell with **no nucleus** and **no membrane-bound organelles** (for example a bacterium).
Define a eukaryotic cell.
A cell **with a nucleus** and membrane-bound organelles (for example animal, plant and fungal cells).
Which structure should you pick for 'found in all domains of life'?
**Ribosomes** — universal and also an organelle; never answer 'nucleus'.
Define a prokaryotic cell.
A cell with **no nucleus** and **no membrane-bound organelles**; its DNA lies free in the cytoplasm. All **bacteria** are prokaryotic.
Define a eukaryotic cell.
A cell with a **true (membrane-bound) nucleus** holding the DNA, plus other membrane-bound organelles. **Animal, plant and fungal** cells are eukaryotic.
What is the single biggest difference between the two cell types?
Prokaryotes have **no nucleus**; eukaryotes have a **true nucleus** enclosing the DNA.
How is DNA organised in a prokaryotic cell?
As **one circular loop**, lying **naked** (no histones) in the cytoplasm, often with small extra rings (**plasmids**).
How is DNA organised in a eukaryotic cell?
As **linear chromosomes** wound around **histones**, sealed inside the **nucleus**.
What is a histone?
A **protein** that eukaryotic DNA wraps around to package its long chromosomes. Prokaryotic DNA has **no histones**.
What is a plasmid?
A **small extra ring of DNA** in many prokaryotes, separate from the main DNA loop.
Name four structures BOTH cell types share.
**Plasma membrane**, **cytoplasm**, **DNA** and **ribosomes**.
State the function of a flagellum in a prokaryote.
It rotates like a propeller to **move the cell** through liquid.
State the function of ribosomes.
They are the site of **protein synthesis** (building proteins from amino acids).
Compare prokaryote and eukaryote ribosome size.
Prokaryote ribosomes are **smaller (70S)**; eukaryote ribosomes are **larger (80S)**.
Which cell type is usually larger?
**Eukaryotic** (about 10–100 µm) vs **prokaryotic** (about 1–5 µm).
What type of cell are animal, plant and fungal cells?
All are **eukaryotic** — they have a nucleus and membrane-bound organelles.
Define cell wall.
A **rigid layer outside the cell membrane** that gives a cell a fixed shape and support.
What is a plant cell wall made of?
**Cellulose**.
What is a fungal cell wall made of?
**Chitin** (not cellulose).
Which cell type has no cell wall?
**Animal cells** — they have only a flexible cell membrane.
Which organelle is found only in plant cells?
**Chloroplasts** — the site of photosynthesis.
Why does an animal cell look irregular while a plant cell stays regular?
The plant cell has a **rigid cell wall** holding a fixed shape; the animal cell has **no wall**, so its membrane is easily squashed.
What is the large vacuole in a plant cell for?
It is a fluid-filled sac that **keeps the cell firm**; animal cells have only small temporary vacuoles.
Define an atypical cell.
A cell that breaks the usual rule of having **one nucleus** — either anucleate or multinucleate.
Give an example of an anucleate cell and why.
A mature **red blood cell** — it **loses its nucleus**, leaving more room to carry oxygen.
Give two examples of multinucleate cells.
**Skeletal muscle fibres** and **fungal hyphae** — one long cell with **many nuclei**.
What is a micrograph?
A **photograph** of a specimen taken through a **microscope**.
What is an electron micrograph?
A micrograph taken with an **electron microscope** — high enough magnification to see small organelles such as mitochondria.
Define an organelle.
A structure inside a cell that does a **specific job** (for example the nucleus or a mitochondrion).
What is the first clue to look for when reading a micrograph?
Whether there is a **nucleus** — no nucleus means **prokaryotic**.
In a micrograph, how do you know a cell is prokaryotic?
**No nucleus** and **no membrane-bound organelles**; the DNA lies **free in the cytoplasm**, and the cell is **small**.
In a micrograph, how do you know a cell is eukaryotic?
It has a **nucleus** and **membrane-bound organelles** (such as mitochondria).
Plant vs animal cell in a micrograph — how do you tell?
A **plant** cell has a **cell wall** and often **chloroplasts**; an **animal** cell has **neither**.
Cell wall but no chloroplasts — which cell type?
A **fungal** cell (its wall is made of **chitin**).
What must a 'Deduce' answer about a micrograph include?
The **cell type** AND a **visible feature** as the reason (for example 'no nucleus, so prokaryotic').
Name four features to label when drawing a nucleus from an electron micrograph.
The **double membrane (nuclear envelope)**, the **nuclear pores**, the **chromatin** and the **nucleolus**.
Why draw the nuclear envelope as two lines?
Because it is a **double membrane** — drawing a single line is the most common lost mark.
Roughly how large is a typical prokaryotic cell?
Small — about **1–5 μm** across (eukaryotic cells are usually much larger).
How do you identify a mitochondrion in an electron micrograph?
It is **oval** (sausage-shaped) with folded inner membranes called **cristae**.
How do you tell rough ER from smooth ER in a micrograph?
**Rough ER** has membranes **studded with ribosomes** (dots); **smooth ER** has a **plain surface with no dots**.
How do you identify the Golgi apparatus in a micrograph?
It looks like a **stack of flattened, curved sacs**, often with small vesicles nearby.
Define a virus.
A **non-cellular infectious particle**: a **nucleic acid genome (DNA or RNA)** inside a **protein capsid**, sometimes with a lipid envelope. It replicates only inside a host cell.
Why is a virus called non-cellular (acellular)?
It has **no cytoplasm, organelles, ribosomes or metabolism** — it is not built from cells.
What two parts does every virus have?
A **genome** (DNA or RNA) and a **protein capsid** (built from capsomere sub-units).
What is a capsid?
The **protein coat** surrounding a virus's genome, made of repeating sub-units called **capsomeres**; it protects the genome and helps attach to a host.
What are the envelope and glycoprotein spikes for?
The **lipid envelope** (from the host membrane) surrounds the capsid; the **spikes** bind **specific host-cell receptors** so the virus can attach and enter.
Name three ways viruses are diverse.
**Size**; **capsid shape** (helical / icosahedral / complex); and **genome type** (DNA vs RNA, single- vs double-stranded).
What does 'obligate intracellular parasite' mean?
The virus **has no choice** but to be inside a **host cell** to replicate, using the host's **ribosomes and machinery**.
Define a virulent virus.
A virus that immediately runs the **lytic cycle**, **killing the host cell** to reproduce.
List the five steps of the lytic cycle, in order.
**Attachment → Entry → Replication/synthesis → Assembly → Lysis/release.**
What happens at the ATTACHMENT step, and why does it matter?
The virus **binds a specific receptor** on the host surface. The match decides which cells it can infect — it sets the **host range**.
What enters the host cell at the ENTRY step?
Only the **viral genome** (DNA or RNA) is injected; the empty protein coat is left outside.
How does a virus replicate during the lytic cycle?
It **hijacks the host's machinery** — enzymes, ribosomes, nucleotides and ATP — to copy its genome and make capsid proteins.
What is lysis, and what is the net effect of the lytic cycle?
**Lysis** = the host cell **bursting and dying**, releasing many new viruses. Net effect = **rapid amplification of the virus + host-cell death**.
What is a temperate phage?
A bacteriophage that can take **either** the **lytic** cycle (kill the host now) **or** the **lysogenic** cycle (integrate and lie dormant).
What is the lysogenic cycle?
The pathway where a phage's DNA **integrates into the host chromosome** and is copied with it, **without** making new virus or killing the cell.
What is a prophage?
Phage DNA that has **integrated into the host chromosome** and lies **dormant** there.
How is a prophage replicated?
**Passively** — the host's own machinery copies the whole chromosome (prophage included) at every cell division, so it passes into **all daughter cells**.
What is induction?
A trigger (**stress, UV light or DNA damage**) that makes the prophage **excise** from the chromosome and switch to the **lytic** cycle.
Lytic vs lysogenic — the key contrast?
**Lytic** = make virus **now** and **kill** the host. **Lysogenic** = **integrate** as a prophage, no immediate harm, can **later** turn lytic.
How does a prophage spread without making virus?
It is **copied passively** with the host chromosome at each division, so every **daughter cell inherits it** — vertical transmission, no virions released.
What is a retrovirus?
An **enveloped RNA virus** that carries the enzyme **reverse transcriptase**. HIV is the classic example.
What does reverse transcriptase do?
It makes a **DNA copy from an RNA template** (RNA → DNA) — the **reverse** of normal transcription (which goes DNA → RNA).
Why is it called 'reverse' transcription?
Normal transcription goes **DNA → RNA**; reverse transcription goes **RNA → DNA** — the opposite direction.
What is a provirus?
The **viral DNA after it has integrated** into the host cell's own DNA. The host then transcribes it to make new virus.
Which cells does HIV infect, and what does destroying them cause?
HIV infects **helper T-lymphocytes (CD4 cells)**. Destroying them weakens the immune system, causing **AIDS**.
Why does HIV mutate so quickly?
**Reverse transcriptase has no proofreading**, so its copying errors are not corrected — giving a **high mutation rate** and rapid evolution.
Why is HIV hard to treat and to vaccinate against?
Its fast mutation lets it **evolve drug resistance** (so combination antiretrovirals are used) and **escape the immune system** (so no effective vaccine yet).
Why is reverse transcriptase a good drug target?
It is an enzyme **your own cells don't have**, so blocking it stops the virus copying its RNA into DNA while largely sparing your cells.
What does it mean that viruses are probably 'polyphyletic'?
They have **multiple independent origins** — viruses probably arose **several separate times**, not from one common ancestor.
Name the three hypotheses for the origin of viruses.
**Escape** (host genes/mobile elements gained a capsid), **reduction** (free-living parasitic cells lost genes), and **virus-first** (self-replicating molecules co-evolved with early cells).
Why is the origin of viruses 'uncertain'?
Viruses are non-cellular and leave no fossils, and each hypothesis explains only **some** viruses — so there is **no single agreed origin**.
Why do viruses evolve so rapidly?
**Huge populations + very short generation times + high mutation rates** mean **natural selection** acts on them extremely fast.
Why do RNA viruses mutate especially fast?
Their **polymerases lack proofreading**, so many copying errors (mutations) accumulate each generation.
Antigenic drift vs antigenic shift?
**Drift** = small, gradual mutations in the surface proteins. **Shift** = a large, sudden change when two strains **swap whole genome segments**.
Why must flu and COVID vaccines be updated?
Variants with **changed surface proteins** escape existing immunity and are **selected for**, so the circulating strain no longer matches the old vaccine.
Define a species.
A group of organisms that can **interbreed** and produce **fertile offspring**.
What is the biological species concept?
Defining a species by the ability to **interbreed** and produce **fertile offspring**.
What does 'fertile offspring' mean?
Young that are themselves **able to reproduce**.
What is a hybrid?
The offspring of a cross between **two different species** (e.g. a mule).
What does 'sterile' mean?
**Unable to reproduce** — cannot produce offspring of its own.
Are a horse and a donkey the same species? Why?
**No** — they produce a **mule**, which is **sterile**, so they are different species.
Why is 'they can breed' not a full definition of species?
It leaves out that the offspring must be **fertile** — sterile young mean the parents are different species.
Are two very different dog breeds the same species?
**Yes** — they can interbreed and give fertile pups; breed differences are just variation within one species.
What is a karyotype?
An organism's full set of **chromosomes**, shown by their **number, size and shape**.
How can karyotyping help decide if two organisms are the same species?
**Matching** chromosome number/pattern supports the **same** species; clearly **different** karyotypes suggest different species.
Name two cases where the biological species concept is hard to apply.
Organisms that **do not reproduce sexually** (e.g. bacteria) and **fossils**.
What is the offspring of a horse and a donkey called?
A **mule** — a sterile **hybrid**.
Define binomial nomenclature.
The system of naming each species with a **two-part Latin name**: **genus + species**.
In a binomial name, which word is the genus?
The **first** word (it is capitalised), e.g. **Panthera** in **Panthera leo**.
In a binomial name, which word is the species?
The **second** word (it is lower-case); it only has meaning alongside its genus.
Define genus.
A group of **closely related species** — the first word of a scientific name.
How is a binomial name written in print?
In **italics**, with the genus **capitalised** and the species **lower-case**.
How do you write a binomial name by hand?
**Underline** each word (since you can't italicise by hand); genus still capitalised, species lower-case.
Who created binomial nomenclature?
**Carl Linnaeus**, in the 1700s.
What is the morphological species concept?
Linnaeus's idea of grouping organisms into species by their **shared physical features / appearance**.
Two species share the same genus. What does that tell you?
They are **more closely related** than two species placed in **different genera**.
Felis catus and Felis silvestris — how related are they?
**Closely related** — they share the genus **Felis** (the same first word).
Why can't the species word be used on its own?
It has **no meaning without its genus** — different genera can reuse the same species word.
Why do scientists use binomial names instead of common names?
Common names vary between languages and regions; a binomial name is **one agreed name** for each species worldwide.
What are the four eukaryote kingdoms?
**Plants, animals, fungi and protists.**
Define a eukaryote.
An organism whose cells have a **nucleus** (and membrane-bound organelles).
What is a plant cell wall made of?
**Cellulose.**
What is a fungal cell wall made of?
**Chitin.**
Define an autotroph.
An organism that **makes its own food** from simple inorganic molecules (e.g. by photosynthesis).
Define a heterotroph.
An organism that obtains food by **taking in organic molecules** made by other organisms.
Define a mixotroph.
An organism that can feed as an **autotroph OR a heterotroph**, depending on conditions.
What is holozoic nutrition?
Heterotrophic feeding where food is taken **into the body and digested internally** (as animals do).
What is saprotrophic nutrition?
Heterotrophic feeding where enzymes digest **dead matter outside** the body, then the products are absorbed (as fungi do).
Which two kingdoms have a cell wall, and what differs?
**Plants** (cellulose) and **fungi** (chitin) — same idea, different material.
If a cell has chloroplasts, what mode of nutrition is possible?
**Autotrophic** — chloroplasts let it make its own food by photosynthesis.
Why are protists grouped into one kingdom?
They are the **'everything else'** eukaryotes — mostly **unicellular** and not fitting plants, animals or fungi.
What is an identifying feature of a group?
A feature that **tells the group apart** from others (e.g. feathers for birds), not just any feature the organism has.
Two identifying features of mammals?
**Fur/hair** and **feeding young on milk** (from mammary glands).
Two identifying features of birds?
**Feathers** and a **beak** (no teeth); they also lay hard-shelled eggs.
Three identifying features of fish?
**Scales**, **gills** and **fins**; they live in water.
Identifying feature of amphibians?
**Moist smooth skin**; they live partly in water and lay jelly-covered eggs in water.
How do flowering plants differ from mosses?
Flowering plants have **true roots, vascular tissue and flowers/seeds**; mosses have **none** and reproduce by **spores**.
How do mosses (bryophytes) reproduce?
By **spores** — they have no flowers or seeds.
Which phylum has stinging cells and a single gut opening?
**Cnidarians** (e.g. jellyfish, sea anemones).
Identifying feature of a mollusc?
A **soft body**, often protected by a **shell** (e.g. snail, octopus).
Identifying feature of an arthropod?
A hard **exoskeleton** and **jointed legs** (e.g. insects, spiders, crabs).
Identifying feature of an annelid?
A long body built from many similar **ring-like segments** (e.g. earthworm).
Define vertebrate.
An animal with a **backbone** (a column of bones along its back).
What does each branch point (node) on a cladogram represent?
A **common ancestor**. Groups meeting at a **more recent node** are **more closely related**.
What evidence are modern classifications and cladograms built from?
**Molecular evidence** — comparing the **amino-acid sequence** of a shared protein (e.g. myoglobin) or the **DNA base sequence**. Fewer differences ⇒ more recent common ancestor.
If two organisms are in the same genus (or family/order), what does that tell you?
They share **characteristics inherited from a common ancestor** — the shared rank reflects a recent common ancestry.
Define a dichotomous key.
An identification tool made of **paired either/or choices** about observable features, each leading to another step or to an organism's **name**.
What does 'dichotomous' mean?
**Split into two** — every step offers exactly **two** opposite choices.
Where do you always start when using a key?
At **Step 1** (the top), then follow the matching choices in order.
Define an observable feature.
A characteristic you can **see or measure** directly — e.g. legs, shell, scales, wings.
What does it mean when an organism 'keys out'?
The key has reached the point that **names (identifies)** the organism.
How many choices does each step of a dichotomous key give?
**Two** — a pair of opposite either/or statements.
Why must key choices be opposite and clear?
So every organism fits **exactly one** side at each step, with **no overlap**.
Why is 'lives in a pond' a poor choice for a key step?
Habitat is **not a body feature** — a key must use features you can **observe** on the organism.
How should you move through a key at each step?
Follow **only the choice that matches** your organism, then go to the step or name it points to.
Why is it useful to write down your route through a key (e.g. 1 → 3 → snail)?
It shows the **correct path** for the marks and helps you **avoid careless slips**.
Should you identify an organism from its name or its features?
From its **observable features** — follow the key; never guess from the name.
What is a couplet (step) in a key?
One **numbered pair** of opposite statements; you pick the one that matches the organism.
Define a unicellular organism.
A living organism whose **whole body is a single cell**.
What is a 'function of life'?
A **life process every living organism must carry out** to stay alive (e.g. nutrition, response, reproduction).
List the seven functions of life.
**Nutrition, metabolism, growth, response, excretion, homeostasis, reproduction.**
Why must a single cell perform all functions of life?
It has **no tissues or organs** to share the work — the **one cell** must do everything itself.
Which function does a food vacuole show?
**Nutrition** — taking in nutrients/food.
Which function does a contractile vacuole show?
**Homeostasis** — it pumps out excess water to keep the internal water balance stable.
Why is a contractile vacuole NOT excretion?
The water it removes entered by **osmosis** and is **not a metabolic waste** — excretion removes metabolic waste like CO₂.
Which function is shown by releasing CO₂?
**Excretion** — removing a waste product of metabolism.
Which function is shown by moving toward food?
**Response** — reacting to a stimulus in the surroundings.
Define binary fission.
Reproduction in which **one cell divides into two identical cells**.
Which function is shown when a cell divides into two?
**Reproduction** (by binary fission).
Name two examples of unicellular organisms.
Any two of: **Paramecium, Amoeba, Euglena, Chlamydomonas, bacteria.**
Define a clade.
A group consisting of a **common ancestor AND all of its descendants** — a **monophyletic** group / a complete branch of the tree of life.
What does 'monophyletic' mean?
Tracing back to **one common ancestor**, with **all** of that ancestor's descendants included — another word for a clade.
Natural vs artificial classification?
**Natural** = grouped by real **common ancestry** (so each group is a clade). **Artificial** = grouped by convenient **surface features**, which can lump unrelated species together.
Homologous trait — what is it, and is it useful for classification?
A feature **inherited from a shared common ancestor**. **Useful** — it groups genuine relatives.
Analogous trait — what is it, and why is it misleading?
A similar feature that evolved **independently** by **convergent evolution**. **Misleading** — it reflects lifestyle, not ancestry, so it would group unrelated species.
What kind of trait defines a clade in cladistics?
A **shared derived (homologous) trait** — one that first appeared in a common ancestor and was passed to **all** of its descendants.
Why aren't a dolphin and a shark in the same clade despite their similar shape?
Their streamlined shape is **analogous** (convergent evolution for fast swimming), not inherited from a recent shared ancestor. A dolphin is a **mammal**, a shark a **fish**.
What is a cladogram?
A branching **tree-diagram** showing the **most probable evolutionary relationships** among groups (clades), based on the best current evidence.
What does a node on a cladogram represent?
A **common ancestor** — the point where one ancestral lineage **diverged (split)** into two lineages.
How do you find the two most closely related groups?
Find the pair whose branches meet at the **most recent node** (nearest the tips) — they share the **most recent common ancestor**.
What is the root of a cladogram?
The **deepest (oldest) node**, on the far left — the **common ancestor of every group** on the tree.
Why are some groups more distantly related than others?
Their branches meet only at a **deep node (near the root)**, so their **common ancestor is much older** — they diverged earlier.
Why is a cladogram only a hypothesis?
It shows the **most probable** relationships from the **evidence available** (now mainly DNA). New evidence can lead to it being **revised**.
What is molecular evidence in classification?
Data from **molecular sequences** — the **base sequence** of a gene or the **amino-acid sequence** of a protein — used to work out how closely species are related.
Name two kinds of molecule compared to build cladograms.
A **gene's base sequence** (e.g. the **rRNA** gene) and a **protein's amino-acid sequence** (e.g. **haemoglobin**).
What do MORE sequence differences between two species mean?
They **diverged longer ago** (more time for mutations to accumulate) and are **more distantly related**.
What do FEWER sequence differences mean?
A **more recent** split — the species are **more closely related**.
What is the molecular clock?
Because **neutral mutations** accumulate at a **roughly constant rate**, the **number of sequence differences** can **estimate the time** since two species shared a common ancestor.
Give one strength and one caution of the molecular clock.
**Strength:** it is objective/quantitative and works even **without fossils**. **Caution:** rates **vary between genes and lineages**, so it must be **calibrated against fossils**.
What is a clade?
A group made of **one common ancestor and ALL of its descendants** — nothing left out, nothing unrelated added in.
What does 'monophyletic' mean?
It describes a **valid clade** — an **ancestor plus all its descendants**. Cladistics aims to make every named group monophyletic.
When are organisms reclassified by cladistics?
When **molecular/cladistic (DNA) evidence conflicts** with the traditional **morphology-based** grouping, showing the old group is **not a clade**.
Why was the figwort family (Scrophulariaceae) split?
**DNA** showed its members did **not share a single common ancestor** (it was not a clade), so it was **split and reorganised** into several smaller true clades.
Why are birds placed inside the reptile clade?
Cladistics places birds **inside the dinosaur/reptile lineage** (closest to crocodiles); a 'reptile' group without birds is **paraphyletic**, so to be a clade it must **include birds**.
Why might a species be moved between genera?
If **DNA** shows its true closest relatives are in a **different genus**, it is **moved (and renamed)** so the genus stays a **monophyletic clade**.
What does reclassification tell us about classification?
That it is **provisional and evidence-led** — the **current best hypothesis** of relationships, open to revision when better molecular data arrives.
Why can grouping by appearance (morphology) mislead?
Unrelated species can **look alike** (convergent evolution) and close relatives can **look very different**, so a looks-based group may mix lineages or split real ones.
Define evolution.
The **change in the heritable characteristics of a population over generations** (a change in allele frequency).
What are the three key words in the definition of evolution?
**Heritable**, **population**, and **over generations**.
At the genetic level, evolution is a change in what?
**Allele frequency** in the **gene pool** of a population.
Define an allele.
One particular **version of a gene** (e.g. a dark or a light allele for fur colour).
Define allele frequency.
How **common** a particular allele is in the gene pool (its proportion).
What is a gene pool?
All the **alleles** present in a whole **population**.
Can a single individual evolve?
**No** — evolution happens to a **population over generations**, not to one organism.
Why must an evolutionary change be heritable?
Only **genetic** features can be **passed to offspring** — learned or lifestyle changes are not inherited.
Define a population (for evolution).
All the members of **one species** in an area that can **interbreed**.
Is a suntan an example of evolution? Why/why not?
**No** — it is a **non-heritable** change in **one individual** within its lifetime.
A resistant allele becomes more common in a bacterial population over generations. Is this evolution?
**Yes** — it is a heritable change in **allele frequency** of a **population over generations**.
Over what timescale does evolution act?
Across **many generations** — not within a single lifetime.
Define homologous structures.
Structures with the **same basic plan but different functions**, inherited from a **common ancestor** (e.g. human arm, bat wing, whale flipper).
Define analogous structures.
Structures with a **similar function but a different basic plan** and no recent shared ancestor for that feature (e.g. bird wing vs insect wing).
What is divergent evolution?
One ancestral form gives rise to **several different forms** — it produces **homologous** structures.
What is convergent evolution?
Unrelated species under similar conditions evolve **similar features independently** — it produces **analogous** structures.
Which is the strongest evidence for evolution?
**DNA / base-sequence comparison** — more shared sequence means more closely related species.
List the main lines of evidence for evolution.
**Homologous structures, fossils, biogeography, selective breeding and DNA base sequences.**
Homologous structures are evidence of which evolution type?
**Divergent** evolution — one common ancestor, then modified for different jobs.
Analogous structures are evidence of which evolution type?
**Convergent** evolution — similar features evolved separately under the same selection pressure.
Why is selective breeding evidence for evolution?
It shows that **heritable characteristics of a population can change** quickly when there is selection — here, by humans.
Why is Lamarckism NOT valid evidence for evolution?
Traits **gained during an organism's life are not heritable**, so they cannot be passed on; evolution acts only on heritable variation.
How do you tell homologous from analogous structures?
Homologous = **same plan, different job** (common ancestor); analogous = **same job, different plan** (convergent).
Why does DNA evidence strengthen the case from body plans?
DNA is an **independent** clue — when a DNA cladogram agrees with one built from anatomy, two separate lines of evidence point to the same ancestry.
On a cladogram, how do you find a species' closest relative?
Trace both branches **back to the node where they meet**; the pair that join at the **most recent (lowest) node** share a common ancestor most recently, so they are the **most closely related**.
What does a node (branch point) on a cladogram represent?
The **most recent common ancestor** of all the species above that point.
Name the three sources of heritable variation.
**Mutation**, **meiosis** and **sexual reproduction**.
Which source creates brand-new alleles?
**Mutation** — a random change to DNA. (Meiosis and sexual reproduction only make new combinations.)
Define natural selection.
The process where individuals **best suited to the environment survive and reproduce more**, passing on their alleles.
Define evolution.
A **change in the heritable characteristics (allele frequencies)** of a population over many generations.
Why must variation be heritable to drive natural selection?
Only **gene-based (allele)** variation can be **passed to offspring**; traits gained during life are not inherited.
What is an adaptation?
An **inherited feature** that makes an organism **better suited to its environment**.
What is the 'outcome' of natural selection?
A **favourable allele becomes more common** in the population over generations.
Does the environment create the helpful variation?
**No** — the variation is **already present** (mostly from past mutations); the environment only **selects** it.
Why is competition important for natural selection?
More offspring are produced than can survive, so individuals **compete** — the best-suited ones win out and reproduce.
How does antibiotic resistance spread in bacteria?
A few bacteria already carry a **resistance allele** (mutation); the antibiotic kills the rest; survivors **reproduce** and the allele becomes **more common**.
What does 'differential survival' mean?
Some individuals **survive and reproduce more than others** because of their heritable features.
Define allele frequency.
How **common a particular allele is** in a population.
Define a species (biological species concept).
A group of organisms that can **interbreed and produce fertile offspring**.
Define speciation.
The formation of a **new species** from an existing one.
Define reproductive isolation.
When two populations can **no longer interbreed** to produce fertile offspring.
What is gene flow?
The movement of **alleles between populations** through interbreeding.
What is geographic isolation?
Separation of populations by a **physical barrier** (river, mountain or ocean).
Why are a horse and a donkey different species?
They can mate, but their offspring (a **mule**) is **sterile** — so they fail the 'fertile offspring' test.
How would you test whether two similar forms are the same species?
Do a **breeding (crossing) test**: try to **interbreed** them and check whether the offspring are **fertile**. Fertile offspring ⇒ same species; no offspring or sterile offspring ⇒ different species.
What are the two steps of speciation?
(1) Populations become **reproductively isolated**; (2) they **diverge** by mutation and natural selection.
What does a geographic barrier do to gene flow?
It **stops gene flow** between the two populations, allowing their gene pools to diverge.
What two processes drive the divergence?
**Mutation** (new alleles) and **natural selection** (different alleles favoured in each environment).
When are two populations finally two species?
When they have diverged so much that they can **no longer interbreed to produce fertile offspring**.
What is a gene pool?
All the **alleles present in a population**.
Why does isolation alone not instantly make two species?
Divergence takes **many generations** of mutation and natural selection before interbreeding becomes impossible.
Define speciation.
The **formation of a new species** from an existing one.
Define adaptive radiation.
The **rapid evolution of many new species** from a single ancestor, each adapted to a **different niche**.
What is a niche?
The particular **role and way of life** of a species — what it eats, where it lives and how it behaves.
Adaptive radiation often follows what event?
Reaching **new, empty habitats** (for example a fresh island chain) with many unfilled niches.
On a graph, what signals adaptive radiation?
A **sharp rise in the number of species** in one group over a relatively short time.
Define gradual speciation.
Speciation by the **slow build-up of small heritable changes** over a long time.
Define abrupt speciation.
Speciation that happens **suddenly**, over a short time (for example by a **chromosome-number change**).
In the fossil record, what does gradual speciation look like?
A **smooth series of in-between forms**, each only slightly different from the one before.
Give one common cause of abrupt speciation in plants.
A **change in chromosome number**, which instantly stops the plant breeding with its parent population.
Do these patterns still need natural selection?
**Yes** — adaptive radiation, gradual and abrupt speciation all rely on **natural selection** and **reproductive isolation**.
What does diversification mean here?
One group **becoming more varied** — splitting into **many** different species over time.
Define biodiversity.
The **variety of life** in an area — including **species, habitat and genetic** diversity.
Define species richness.
The **number of different species** present in a community.
Define ecosystem stability.
The ability of an ecosystem to **keep functioning and recover** after a disturbance.
Name the three levels of biodiversity.
**Species** diversity, **habitat** diversity and **genetic** diversity.
Why does high biodiversity make an ecosystem more stable?
Species' roles **overlap**, so if one species is lost **another can cover its role** — the ecosystem keeps working.
Give two ways biodiversity is valuable to humans.
It provides **food and materials**, **medicines**, and **ecosystem services** (e.g. pollination, water cleaning).
What is an ecosystem service? Give an example.
Free 'work' an ecosystem does for us — e.g. **bees pollinating crops** or wetlands cleaning water.
Why is extinction such a serious loss?
It is **irreversible** — a species' genes and its ecological role are gone **forever**.
Name three human causes of biodiversity loss.
**Habitat destruction**, **overexploitation** and **pollution** (also invasive species and climate change).
What is the 'sixth mass extinction'?
The current **rapid, human-driven** loss of species, happening far faster than the natural background rate.
In a 'Suggest why biodiversity matters' question, what should you link to?
Link **more species** to a **benefit** — usually greater **stability / resilience** or more **ecosystem services**.
Why does just saying 'there are more species' score no marks?
You must **link** the extra species to a **consequence** (stability, services); the variety alone is not the mark.
Define biodiversity.
The **variety of living organisms** — the number of different species and the variety within them.
Define extinction.
The **permanent loss** of a species when its **very last member dies**.
Name the five human causes of biodiversity loss.
**Habitat loss, overexploitation, pollution, invasive species, climate change** (memory hook: HIPPO).
Which cause destroys the most biodiversity, and why?
**Habitat loss** — clearing a habitat removes the home of **every** species that depends on it at once.
Define habitat loss.
Destruction or fragmentation of the **natural place a species lives** (e.g. deforestation, draining wetlands).
Define overexploitation.
Harvesting or hunting a species **faster than it can reproduce**, so its population crashes.
Define an invasive species.
A **non-native** species, introduced by humans, that spreads and **harms native species** by competing with, eating or infecting them.
Why are islands especially vulnerable to invasive species?
Native island species often have **no defences** against a brand-new predator or competitor.
Give one way pollution causes biodiversity loss.
Harmful substances such as **pesticides or plastic** added to air, water or soil **poison or kill** wildlife.
How does climate change cause biodiversity loss?
Human-driven warming **shifts conditions faster than species can adapt** (e.g. coral bleaching as the sea warms).
Difference between extinction and biodiversity loss?
**Extinction** = one whole species lost forever; **biodiversity loss** = the **wider fall** in variety, including shrinking populations.
What does a 'Discuss the impact' question need to score full marks?
**Named impacts with reasoning** (a direct and a knock-on effect) — not just 'it is bad'.
Define in situ conservation.
Protecting a species **within its natural habitat** (e.g. in a nature reserve or national park).
Define ex situ conservation.
Protecting a species **outside its natural habitat** (e.g. in a zoo, botanic garden or seed bank).
Give two examples of in situ conservation.
**Nature reserves / national parks** and **wildlife corridors** that connect them.
State the main advantage of in situ conservation.
The **whole ecosystem** is conserved together, so the species keeps a large population with **high genetic diversity** and behaves naturally.
What is a wildlife corridor?
A protected strip of habitat that **connects two separate reserves** so animals can move between them.
How does a wildlife corridor help biodiversity?
It lets animals **move, interbreed and recolonise** between reserves — keeping populations larger and genetically diverse.
Define habitat fragmentation.
The breaking up of one large habitat into **smaller, separated patches**.
What is the edge effect?
The **harsher conditions** (wind, light, predators, invasive species) found **near the boundary** of a habitat patch compared with its interior.
Which reserve shape protects the most species, and why?
A **large, rounded** reserve — it has **more sheltered interior** and **less exposed edge**.
Why is a long, thin reserve poor at protecting species?
It is **almost all edge**, so harsh edge conditions reach every part and few interior species survive.
Why does in situ conservation keep genetic diversity high?
The wild population stays **large**, so a wide range of alleles is kept (unlike a small captive group).
Why is in situ often preferred over ex situ?
It conserves the **whole habitat/ecosystem** and lets the species **behave and evolve naturally**, not just survive in captivity.
Define ex situ conservation.
Protecting a species **away from its natural habitat** — e.g. in a zoo, botanic garden, seed bank or gene bank.
Define in situ conservation.
Protecting a species **inside its natural habitat** — e.g. a nature reserve or national park.
Give three ex situ methods.
**Captive breeding** (zoos), **botanic gardens**, and **seed / gene banks**.
What is captive breeding?
Breeding endangered animals **under human care** to raise their numbers, often to **reintroduce** them to the wild.
What is a seed bank?
A cold, dry store of seeds from many species kept as a **long-term genetic back-up**.
How does ex situ help raise numbers?
Animals breed **safely** (away from predators/poachers) under expert care, so the **population grows**.
How do gene/seed banks help conservation?
They **preserve genetic variety** so a species can recover even if wild populations are lost.
What is reintroduction?
**Releasing** captive-bred individuals back into a (protected) **natural habitat**.
Give two limitations of ex situ conservation.
It is **expensive** and holds **small numbers** (inbreeding risk); it also **does not protect the habitat**.
Why can captive-bred animals struggle after release?
They may **lack survival skills** learned in the wild, so they can struggle to find food or avoid predators.
Why is ex situ called a 'back-up'?
It keeps a species alive when its **wild habitat is too damaged**, but it does not protect that habitat — so it works **best alongside in situ**.
In situ vs ex situ — one key difference?
**In situ protects the habitat** (the species stays in the wild); **ex situ does not** (the species is held off-site).
Define rewilding.
Restoring the **natural processes** of a degraded ecosystem so it becomes **self-sustaining**, often by reintroducing a **keystone species**.
Define a keystone species.
A species whose effect on its ecosystem is **far larger than its numbers** suggest (e.g. a top predator or a beaver).
Define a degraded ecosystem.
An ecosystem that has been **damaged** so it works less well (e.g. a cleared forest or drained wetland).
What is the flagship method of rewilding?
Reintroducing a **keystone species** to restart natural processes across the ecosystem.
Name a rewilding method that is NOT a keystone reintroduction.
Restore natural **water flow** (re-flooding), re-establish natural **grazing**, let **native plants** return, or reconnect habitats with **corridors**.
How does rewilding differ from ordinary conservation?
Conservation protects species and often needs **ongoing management**; rewilding restores **natural processes** so the ecosystem **manages itself**.
Why can reintroducing one keystone species restore a whole ecosystem?
Its activity (e.g. damming or predation) restarts a **chain** of natural processes that many other species depend on.
Give an example of a keystone reintroduction in rewilding.
**Beavers** — they build dams that restore water flow and create wetland that supports many species.
What does 'ecosystem restoration' mean?
Repairing a **damaged** ecosystem so its **natural processes** and **biodiversity** recover.
How does rewilding help minimise biodiversity loss?
By restoring natural processes in a **degraded** ecosystem, it **reverses** damage so more species can return.
Name two natural processes rewilding tries to restore.
Any two of: **grazing**, **predation**, **flooding/water flow**, **seed dispersal**.
In a 'rewilding methods other than keystone reintroduction' question, what must each method do?
Restore a **natural process** (not just add a species) — e.g. re-flooding or letting native plants return.
What does EDGE stand for?
**Evolutionarily Distinct and Globally Endangered**.
What is the purpose of the EDGE programme?
To **prioritise** which species to conserve — choosing those that are both distinct and endangered when resources are limited.
Define 'evolutionarily distinct'.
Having **very few close living relatives** — a unique, long branch on the tree of life carrying unique evolutionary history.
Define 'globally endangered'.
At **high risk of extinction worldwide** (e.g. a very small or fast-falling population).
What is an EDGE species?
A species that is **both** highly evolutionarily distinct **and** globally endangered — so it is high priority for conservation.
Why must conservationists prioritise species?
There are **more endangered species than money, land and time** to save them all, so choices must be made.
A species is distinct but common. Is it a high EDGE priority?
**No** — it is distinct but not at risk, so it is not urgent.
A species is endangered but has many close relatives. High EDGE priority?
**No (lower)** — its loss is a smaller loss to the tree of life because similar species remain.
Why is losing an evolutionarily distinct species so costly?
It removes a **unique branch of the tree of life and unique genes** that **no other species can replace**.
Define biodiversity.
The **variety of life** — the range of different species (and genes and ecosystems) in an area.
Define conservation.
**Protecting species and habitats** so that biodiversity is maintained for the future.
Which TWO criteria must a top EDGE species meet?
It must be **evolutionarily distinct AND globally endangered** — high on both, not just one.
How many covalent bonds can one carbon atom form?
**Four** — this lets carbon build chains, branches and rings.
Why is carbon the 'backbone' of biological molecules?
Each carbon forms **four covalent bonds** and bonds to itself and other elements, so it builds a huge variety of molecule shapes.
Define a macromolecule.
A very large molecule built from **many smaller repeating subunits** (e.g. a polysaccharide, protein or nucleic acid).
Define a monomer.
A single small subunit that can be joined to others to build a larger molecule (e.g. glucose, an amino acid).
Define a polymer.
A large molecule made of **many monomers** joined together (e.g. starch).
Define condensation.
A reaction that **joins two subunits** and **releases one water molecule (H₂O)**.
Define hydrolysis.
A reaction that **uses one water molecule (H₂O)** to break a bond and split a molecule into two subunits.
Which reaction builds macromolecules?
**Condensation** — it joins monomers and removes water.
Which reaction breaks macromolecules (or disaccharides) down?
**Hydrolysis** — it adds water to split the bonds.
Is condensation anabolic or catabolic?
**Anabolic** — it builds larger molecules from smaller ones.
Is hydrolysis anabolic or catabolic?
**Catabolic** — it breaks larger molecules into smaller ones.
In condensation, what happens to water?
One **water molecule is released** (removed) each time a bond forms.
In hydrolysis, what happens to water?
One **water molecule is used** (added) to break each bond.
What feature is common to all polysaccharides and triglycerides?
They are macromolecules built from **smaller subunits joined by condensation**, releasing water.
What does the word 'hydrolysis' literally mean?
'**Hydro**' = water, '**lysis**' = splitting — splitting a molecule using water.
Define a monosaccharide.
A **single sugar unit** — the **monomer** of a carbohydrate (e.g. glucose, fructose, galactose).
Define a disaccharide.
A sugar made of **two monosaccharides joined together** (e.g. maltose, sucrose, lactose).
What is the chemical formula of glucose?
**C₆H₁₂O₆**.
Define isomers.
Molecules with the **same chemical formula** but a **different arrangement of atoms**.
What is the ONLY difference between alpha- and beta-D-glucose?
The **direction of the -OH group on carbon 1**: it points **down** in alpha-glucose and **up** in beta-glucose.
Define a condensation reaction.
A reaction that **joins two molecules** together and **releases a molecule of water** (H₂O).
Define hydrolysis.
A reaction that **adds water** to **break a bond** — the reverse of condensation.
What bond joins two monosaccharides?
A **glycosidic bond**.
What are the products when two glucose molecules join by condensation?
The disaccharide **maltose** **and** a molecule of **water**.
Maltose is made from which two monosaccharides?
**Glucose + glucose**.
Sucrose is made from which two monosaccharides?
**Glucose + fructose**.
Lactose is made from which two monosaccharides?
**Glucose + galactose**.
Why is glucose easy to transport in the blood?
It is **small and soluble in water**, so it dissolves in the plasma and is carried around the body.
Why is glucose important inside cells?
It is the **main respiratory substrate** — it is broken down in respiration to release energy (ATP).
Define a polysaccharide.
A large molecule (polymer) made of **many monosaccharides** joined together.
What is the monomer of starch, glycogen and cellulose?
**Glucose** — a monosaccharide.
Name the three polysaccharides you must know and their roles.
**Starch** (energy store in plants), **glycogen** (energy store in animals), **cellulose** (structural support in plant cell walls).
Which form of glucose builds starch and glycogen?
**Alpha-glucose**.
Which form of glucose builds cellulose?
**Beta-glucose**.
Describe the structure of starch.
**Alpha-glucose** chains that are **coiled (helical) and lightly branched**.
Describe the structure of glycogen.
**Alpha-glucose** chains that are **highly branched** (even more than starch).
Describe the structure of cellulose.
**Beta-glucose** in **long, straight, unbranched chains** that hydrogen-bond into **fibres**.
Give three features that make a polysaccharide a good energy store.
It is a **large/compact glucose polymer** (lots of energy), **insoluble** (no effect on osmosis), and **branched** (many ends for fast glucose release).
Why is being insoluble useful for a storage polysaccharide?
It does **not dissolve**, so it does **not affect the cell's water balance** (osmosis) and stays as a store.
Why does branching help a storage polysaccharide?
Branches give **many free ends**, so glucose can be **added or removed quickly** by hydrolysis when energy is needed.
Explain how cellulose's structure suits its function.
Straight **beta-glucose** chains **hydrogen-bond** side by side into strong **fibres**, which support the **plant cell wall**.
State the role of cellulose in plant cells.
It provides **structural support** — its fibres strengthen the **cell wall**.
Why can humans not digest cellulose?
We lack the enzyme to break its **beta-glucose** links, so it passes through as dietary **fibre**.
What reaction joins glucose units into a polysaccharide, and what is released?
**Condensation** — each link **releases one water molecule (H₂O)**.
What is a triglyceride made of?
**One glycerol** joined to **three fatty acids**.
Define glycerol.
A small **3-carbon** molecule with **three —OH (hydroxyl) groups**; it forms the **backbone** of a triglyceride.
Define a fatty acid.
A long **hydrocarbon chain** ending in a **—COOH (carboxyl) group**, which is where it joins the glycerol.
What bond joins a fatty acid to glycerol?
An **ester bond**.
How many ester bonds are in one triglyceride?
**Three** — one for each of the three fatty acids.
Name the reaction that builds a triglyceride.
**Condensation** — it forms the ester bonds and **removes water** (one H₂O per bond, three in total).
Name the reaction that breaks a triglyceride.
**Hydrolysis** — it **adds water** (three H₂O) to break the three ester bonds.
What are the products of hydrolysing a triglyceride?
**One glycerol** and **three fatty acids**.
What makes a fatty acid saturated?
Its carbon chain has **only single C–C bonds** — it holds the **maximum** hydrogen and the chain is **straight**.
What makes a fatty acid unsaturated?
Its chain has **one or more C=C double bonds**, which put a **kink** in the chain.
How do you spot an unsaturated fatty acid in a diagram?
Look for a **C=C double bond** (and a **kink**) in the carbon chain.
Why are unsaturated fats usually liquid oils at room temperature?
Their **kinked chains** cannot pack closely together, so they stay **liquid**.
Saturated vs unsaturated — which is usually solid?
**Saturated** fats are usually **solid** (e.g. butter); unsaturated are usually **liquid oils** (e.g. olive oil).
How many water molecules are released when one triglyceride forms?
**Three** — one per ester bond formed by condensation.
Which lipid is used to store energy?
The **triglyceride** — one **glycerol** joined to **three fatty acids**.
Where do animals store fat?
In **adipose tissue** — fat-storage cells under the skin and around organs.
How much energy does a triglyceride store compared with carbohydrate?
About **twice** as much energy **per gram**.
Why are triglycerides so energy-rich per gram?
Their long **fatty-acid tails** contain many energy-rich **C–H bonds** and little oxygen.
Are triglycerides soluble or insoluble in water?
**Insoluble** — the fatty-acid tails are **hydrophobic** (water-repelling).
Why is being insoluble an ADVANTAGE for a store?
Fat does not dissolve in the cell or draw water in by **osmosis**, so large amounts can be stored without upsetting the cell's water balance.
Define hydrophobic.
**Water-repelling** — a non-polar part that does not mix with or dissolve in water.
Define adipose tissue.
Animal tissue made of **fat-storage cells**; it stores triglycerides and forms an **insulating layer** under the skin.
Besides energy, give two roles of the fat layer.
**Thermal insulation** (slows heat loss) and **protection / cushioning** of organs.
Why does glucose dissolve in water but oil does not?
Glucose has many polar **–OH groups** that attract water; a triglyceride's tails are **non-polar / hydrophobic**, so they do not.
Which is the long-term energy store: lipid or carbohydrate?
**Lipid** (triglyceride fat) is the long-term, high-capacity store; **carbohydrate (glycogen)** is the short-term, quick store.
Why is fat a 'compact' store?
It holds lots of energy and carries no extra water, so it stores the **same energy for less mass**.
Define triglyceride.
The energy-storage lipid: one **glycerol** molecule joined to **three fatty acids**.
In an 'explain' answer, what must you do with each property?
**Pair it with its reason** — e.g. insoluble BECAUSE hydrophobic; high energy BECAUSE many C–H bonds.
Define a phospholipid.
A lipid made of **one glycerol, two fatty acids and a phosphate-containing head**.
Define amphipathic.
Having **both a hydrophilic (water-loving) part and a hydrophobic (water-fearing) part** in the same molecule.
What does hydrophilic mean?
**Water-loving** — attracted to and mixes with water.
What does hydrophobic mean?
**Water-fearing** — does not mix with water; repelled by it.
Which part of a phospholipid is the hydrophilic head?
The **phosphate group** (with the glycerol) — it is **polar**, so it is attracted to water.
Which part of a phospholipid is hydrophobic?
The **two fatty-acid tails** — they are **non-polar**, so they are repelled by water.
Why is a phospholipid amphipathic?
Because the **same molecule** has a **hydrophilic head AND hydrophobic tails**.
How is a phospholipid built?
By **condensation reactions** that join the fatty acids and phosphate to glycerol, **releasing water (H₂O)**.
How does a phospholipid differ from a triglyceride?
Both use one glycerol, but a phospholipid has **2 fatty acids + a phosphate head**, while a triglyceride has **3 fatty acids and no phosphate**.
How do phospholipids behave in water?
They **self-arrange into a bilayer**: hydrophilic heads face the water on both sides, hydrophobic tails tuck into the middle.
What is a phospholipid bilayer the basis of?
The **cell (plasma) membrane** — the boundary around every cell.
In a phospholipid bilayer, where do the hydrophobic tails point?
**Inwards**, towards the middle — away from the water on both sides.
Give an example of a molecule that is NOT amphipathic.
A **triglyceride** (fully hydrophobic) or **glucose** (fully hydrophilic) — each is only one or the other.
What is the backbone of a phospholipid?
**Glycerol** — the fatty-acid tails and the phosphate head all attach to it.
What is an ecological niche?
The **role** a species plays in its ecosystem — its **abiotic tolerances**, its **food source** and its **interactions** with other species.
What three things describe a niche?
**Abiotic tolerances** (e.g. temperature, oxygen), the **food/energy source**, and **interactions** with other species.
What is the difference between a habitat and a niche?
A **habitat** is *where* an organism lives (its 'address'); a **niche** is its *role* — how it lives (its 'job').
Can two species share a habitat but have different niches?
**Yes** — e.g. two fish in the same lake that feed on different foods have the same habitat but different niches.
Define an abiotic factor.
A **non-living** physical condition of the environment, such as temperature, oxygen, light or pH.
Define a biotic factor.
A **living** influence on an organism, such as predators, prey, competitors or partner species.
What is a tolerance range?
The range of an abiotic factor (e.g. temperature) within which a species can **survive and grow**.
What is the fundamental niche?
The **full** range of conditions and resources a species **could** occupy if there were **no competitors**.
What is the realized niche?
The **smaller** part of the fundamental niche a species **actually** occupies once **competitors** are present.
Why is the realized niche smaller than the fundamental niche?
Because **competition** restricts the species to part of its potential range (the start of competitive exclusion).
How should you answer a niche question using a data table?
**Read the data** (e.g. temperature ranges) and deduce from the numbers — do not answer from general memory of the species.
Why might a small fish be more abundant among submerged plants than floating plants?
Submerged plants are part of its niche — they provide **more shelter from predators** and **more food**, so the fish survives better there.
What is an abiotic factor?
A **non-living** physical or chemical feature of the environment (e.g. temperature, light, water, pH, oxygen, salinity).
What is a biotic factor?
A **living** feature of the environment — the effect of other organisms (predators, competitors, parasites, food).
How do you decide if a factor is abiotic or biotic?
Ask **is it alive?** Non-living physical/chemical = abiotic; the effect of another organism = biotic.
Give three examples of abiotic factors.
**Temperature, light intensity and water availability** (also pH, oxygen, salinity, soil minerals).
Give three examples of biotic factors.
**Predators, competitors and parasites** (also disease and food supply).
What is an organism's range of tolerance?
The range of an abiotic factor over which it can **survive** — best in the optimum, absent beyond its limits.
On a tolerance curve, what is the optimum range?
The middle peak, where the organism's **performance / abundance is highest**.
On a tolerance curve, what happens beyond the limits of tolerance?
The organism cannot survive and is **absent**.
What is a limiting factor?
The abiotic factor **furthest from the optimum** — the one that restricts where an organism can live.
What is a biome?
A **large region with a characteristic climate** (abiotic conditions) and a characteristic community of organisms.
Which two abiotic conditions mainly define a biome?
**Temperature** and **rainfall** (water availability).
Name two abiotic factors that characterise a hot desert.
**Very high temperature** and **very low rainfall** (scarce water).
Why might a species grow faster in a mesocosm than in the wild?
Conditions are kept **near its optimum**, so the **limiting factor is removed**.
What two things does a mode of nutrition describe?
Where an organism gets its **energy** and where it gets its **carbon**.
Define an autotroph.
An organism that **makes its own organic carbon** from an inorganic source (**CO₂**). 'Auto' = self-feeding.
Define a heterotroph.
An organism that obtains organic carbon by **taking in organic molecules** made by other organisms. 'Hetero' = feeding on others.
What is a mixotroph?
An organism that can use **both modes** — making its own food like an autotroph AND taking organic food like a heterotroph (e.g. Euglena).
What carbon source do all autotrophs use?
**Carbon dioxide (CO₂)** — an inorganic carbon source.
Distinguish a photoautotroph from a chemoautotroph.
Both fix CO₂, but a **photoautotroph** uses **light** for energy, while a **chemoautotroph** oxidises **inorganic chemicals** (e.g. H₂S).
What is holozoic nutrition?
Heterotrophic feeding in which food is **ingested and digested INTERNALLY** inside the body (most animals).
What is a saprotroph?
A heterotroph that feeds on **dead** organic matter, digesting it **EXTERNALLY** with secreted enzymes and absorbing the products (decomposers).
What is a parasite (as a mode of nutrition)?
A heterotroph that feeds on a **living host** and **harms** it (e.g. a tapeworm, a head louse).
How do you tell a saprotroph from a holozoic feeder?
Saprotroph digests **externally** and feeds on **dead** matter; a holozoic feeder ingests food and digests it **internally**.
Give an example of a chemoautotroph.
Some bacteria around **deep-sea vents** that oxidise chemicals such as hydrogen sulfide for energy.
How does oxygen requirement relate to nutrition?
It is part of the niche: an **obligate aerobe** needs O₂, an **obligate anaerobe** is poisoned by it, a **facultative anaerobe** can use it or do without.
How do you classify a mode of nutrition from a data row?
Read the **energy source AND carbon source together** — e.g. light + CO₂ = photoautotroph; oxidising chemicals + CO₂ = chemoautotroph.
What does the competitive exclusion principle state?
Two species **cannot occupy exactly the same niche** in the same place indefinitely — one is excluded, or they partition the resource.
Define an ecological niche.
An organism's **role** in its ecosystem: the abiotic conditions it tolerates, the resources it uses and its interactions with other species.
Define the fundamental niche.
The **full range** of conditions and resources a species **could** use if there were **no competitors** present.
Define the realized niche.
The **smaller part** of the fundamental niche a species **actually** uses once **competition** from other species restricts it.
How do the fundamental and realized niches compare in size?
The realized niche is **never larger** than the fundamental niche — competition can only restrict it.
When do you see a species' fundamental niche?
When the species grows **alone**, with **no competitors** present.
When do you see a species' realized niche?
When the species grows **alongside a competitor**, which squeezes it into a smaller range.
What is resource partitioning?
When competing species **divide a shared resource** (by space, time or type) so each uses a different part and they can **coexist**.
What are the two possible outcomes when two species compete for the same niche?
**Competitive exclusion** (one species is driven out) or **resource partitioning** (they split the resource and coexist in separate zones).
Why do two competing species often occupy separate, non-overlapping zones?
Each is the **better competitor in a different part** of the gradient and **excludes** the other from the part it loses, so each is restricted to its **realized niche**.
On a transect, what does a separate, non-overlapping distribution of two species suggest?
**Competition** between them — each has excluded the other from part of the gradient (competitive exclusion / partitioning).
What is interspecific competition?
An interaction where two **different species** both need the **same limited resource**, so each reduces the amount available to the other.
What is an interspecific relationship?
An interaction between **two different species** ('inter' = between, 'specific' = species).
How are interspecific relationships classified?
By the **effect on each species**: **+** if it benefits, **–** if it is harmed.
Define predation.
One organism (the **predator**) kills and eats another (the **prey**). Predator **+**, prey **–**.
Define herbivory.
An animal eats a plant (or part of one). The herbivore **+**, the plant **–** (often not killed).
Define competition (and its effect signs).
Two species use the same **limited resource**, so **both are harmed** ( **– / –** ).
Define mutualism (and its effect signs).
Two species live closely together and **both benefit** ( **+ / +** ).
Define parasitism.
A **parasite** lives on or in a **host**, taking nutrients. Parasite **+**, host **–**.
Define pathogenicity.
A **pathogen** (disease-causing microbe) infects a host and causes **disease**. Pathogen **+**, host **–**.
Which relationship has both species benefiting?
**Mutualism** ( **+ / +** ) — e.g. a bee pollinating a flower; legume + nitrogen-fixing bacteria.
Which relationship harms both species?
**Competition** ( **– / –** ) — it is the only – / – relationship.
Three relationships are + / –. How do you tell them apart?
By **how** the harm happens: **eaten** → predation/herbivory; **lived on / infected** → parasitism/pathogenicity.
How do you fully explain a relationship in an exam?
**Name** the relationship **and** state how **each** species is affected (+ / –). Naming alone scores only half.
Gut bacteria make vitamins for a human and gain a habitat. Which relationship?
**Mutualism** — both the human and the bacteria benefit.
Legume roots + nitrogen-fixing bacteria in root nodules — which relationship?
**Mutualism** — the plant gains usable nitrogen and the bacteria gain sugars and a habitat.
What is an amino acid?
The **monomer (subunit)** that **proteins** are built from.
What four groups are bonded to the central carbon of an amino acid?
An **amino group (—NH₂)**, a **carboxyl group (—COOH)**, a **hydrogen (—H)** and a **variable R group**.
Which group gives the 'amino' in 'amino acid'?
The **amino group (—NH₂)** — a nitrogen-containing group.
Which group gives the 'acid' in 'amino acid'?
The **carboxyl group (—COOH)**.
What is the R group?
The **variable side chain** of an amino acid — the only part that differs from one amino acid to the next.
How many different amino acids are there, and why?
**20** — because there are **20 different R groups**; the rest of the structure is identical.
Which parts of an amino acid are the same in all 20 of them?
The **central carbon**, the **amino group**, the **carboxyl group** and the **hydrogen** — only the R group differs.
Which elements does an amino acid contain?
**Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen and nitrogen** (some also contain sulfur).
Where does the nitrogen in an amino acid come from?
From the **amino group (—NH₂)**.
How can you tell a protein from a carbohydrate or lipid by its elements?
A protein contains **nitrogen**; carbohydrates and lipids contain only **C, H and O**.
Do carbohydrates and lipids contain nitrogen?
**No** — they contain only carbon, hydrogen and oxygen. Nitrogen is found in proteins / amino acids.
How many central carbons does a single amino acid have?
**One** — all four groups attach to this single central carbon.
What reaction joins two amino acids?
**Condensation** — it forms a **peptide bond** and releases one water molecule.
What is a peptide bond?
The covalent bond (**CO—NH**) that joins two amino acids; it forms by condensation.
Which two groups react to form a peptide bond?
The **carboxyl group (—COOH)** of one amino acid and the **amino group (—NH₂)** of the next.
Which atoms are removed when two amino acids join?
An **—OH** (from the carboxyl group) and an **—H** (from the amino group), leaving together as **one water molecule**.
How much water is released per peptide bond formed?
**One** molecule of water (H₂O) per peptide bond.
Define a dipeptide.
**Two amino acids** joined by a single peptide bond.
Define a polypeptide.
A long chain of **many amino acids** joined by peptide bonds.
What reaction breaks a peptide bond?
**Hydrolysis** — one water molecule is **added** across the bond, splitting the chain into amino acids.
When does hydrolysis of peptide bonds happen in the body?
During **digestion**, when dietary protein is broken back down into amino acids.
How many peptide bonds are in a single chain of n amino acids?
**n − 1** — each bond links a pair, so there is one fewer bond than amino acids.
How do you count peptide bonds across several chains?
**Total amino acids − number of chains** (each chain has one fewer bond than its amino acids).
How many peptide bonds are in a chain of 5 amino acids?
**4** (5 − 1).
How many different amino acids build human proteins?
**20** — about **nine** are essential and about **eleven** are non-essential.
Define an essential amino acid.
An amino acid the body **cannot synthesise (make)**, so it **must be obtained from the diet**.
Define a non-essential amino acid.
An amino acid the body **can synthesise (make)** for itself, so it **does not have to be supplied by the diet**.
Does 'non-essential' mean an amino acid is unimportant?
**No** — every amino acid is needed to build proteins. 'Non-essential' only means it is **not required in the diet**, because the body can make it.
What does 'synthesise' mean here?
To **make / build** a molecule inside the body from simpler materials.
Which type of amino acid must come from food?
**Essential** amino acids — the body cannot make them.
How do you distinguish essential from non-essential amino acids?
**Essential = cannot be made by the body → must be eaten**; **non-essential = can be made by the body → need not be eaten**.
Why can most animal proteins supply protein needs in one food?
They contain **all nine essential amino acids** in a single source (meat, fish, eggs, dairy).
Why is a single plant protein sometimes not enough?
A single plant protein often **lacks one or more essential amino acids**.
What must a vegan / plant-based eater do for protein?
**Combine different plant proteins** (e.g. rice + beans) so that **all nine essential amino acids** are supplied.
What happens if an essential amino acid is missing from the diet?
The body has **no source** of it, so it **cannot build the proteins** that contain it (a protein deficiency).
A table marks an amino acid 'essential' — what can you conclude about how to get it?
It **cannot be synthesised by the body**, so it **must be obtained from the diet**.
What is a protein's 'conformation'?
Its specific **folded 3D shape**. The protein only works correctly in its normal conformation.
What determines a protein's conformation (folded shape)?
The **sequence (order) of its amino acids** — the primary structure.
What is the primary structure of a protein?
The **sequence (order) of amino acids** in the chain, joined by peptide bonds.
What is the secondary structure of a protein?
Local folding into **α-helices** (coils) and **β-pleated sheets**, held by **hydrogen bonds**.
What is the tertiary structure of a protein?
The way the **whole single chain folds** into one overall **3D shape**, held by bonds between the R-groups.
What is the quaternary structure of a protein?
The way **two or more folded chains (subunits)** join together to make one functional protein (e.g. haemoglobin).
Name the four levels of protein structure in order.
**Primary → secondary → tertiary → quaternary.**
Which proteins do NOT have quaternary structure?
**Single-chain** proteins — quaternary structure needs **two or more** chains.
What holds the secondary structure together?
**Hydrogen bonds** between parts of the polypeptide backbone.
What is denaturation?
The **loss of a protein's folded 3D shape**, so it can no longer do its job.
What two conditions commonly cause denaturation?
**High temperature** and **extreme pH** (very acidic or alkaline).
When a protein denatures, what is preserved and what is lost?
The **amino acid sequence (peptide bonds) is preserved**; the **folded 3D shape (conformation) is lost**.
Why does a denatured enzyme stop working?
Its **active site changes shape**, so the **substrate no longer fits** and the reaction is not catalysed.
What determines a protein's function?
Its specific **3-D shape**, which comes from the **order of its amino acids**.
What is meant by the functional diversity of proteins?
Proteins, as a group, can carry out a very **wide range of different jobs** — more than any other type of molecule.
Name a protein that acts as an enzyme, and what it does.
**Amylase** — it **catalyses** the breakdown of starch into sugar.
Name a transport protein and what it carries.
**Haemoglobin** — it **carries oxygen** in red blood cells.
Name a structural protein and where it gives strength.
**Collagen** — it strengthens **skin, tendons and bone**.
Name a protein hormone and what it signals.
**Insulin** — it signals cells to **take up glucose** from the blood.
What role do antibodies perform?
**Defence** — they **bind to specific pathogens** so the body can destroy them.
Which proteins make muscle contract?
**Actin and myosin** — contractile proteins that generate **movement**.
Name a pigment protein and its job.
**Rhodopsin** — it **absorbs light** in the rod cells of the retina (needed for vision).
Define a protein deficiency.
A **shortage of, or fault in, a particular protein**, so the job it normally does cannot be carried out.
How do you predict the effect of a protein deficiency?
Name the **protein's job**, then state that this **job is lost** — so the process that relied on it **fails**.
Which protein deficiency would most likely impair vision, and why?
A shortage of **rhodopsin** — it normally **absorbs light** in rod cells, so without it light is not detected and vision is impaired.
Why can proteins do so many different jobs?
The 20 amino acids can be **ordered in countless ways**, giving countless **shapes** — each shape gives a different **function**.
What is the basic structure of a cell membrane?
A **phospholipid bilayer** — two rows of phospholipids — with proteins, glycoproteins and cholesterol embedded.
What does 'amphipathic' mean?
Having **both** a hydrophilic (water-loving) part and a hydrophobic (water-hating) part in the same molecule.
Which part of a phospholipid is hydrophilic, and which is hydrophobic?
The **phosphate head** is hydrophilic (water-loving); the **two fatty-acid tails** are hydrophobic (water-hating).
Why do the hydrophilic heads face outward?
They are **attracted to the water** present on both the outer and inner surfaces of the membrane.
Why do the hydrophobic tails point inward?
They are **repelled by water**, so they are pushed into the centre, away from the water, forming the core.
Why does a bilayer form spontaneously?
Because phospholipids are amphipathic and there is **water on both sides**: heads go to the water, tails away from it, giving two rows.
What does the hydrophobic core do to permeability?
It makes the membrane **selectively permeable** — small non-polar molecules pass, but large/polar molecules cannot cross freely.
What does a glycoprotein do?
Acts in **cell recognition** and cell signalling — its carbohydrate chain on the outer surface is an 'identity tag'.
What does cholesterol do in the membrane?
Wedges between the phospholipids and **stabilises fluidity**, reducing leakiness to small molecules.
Why is the membrane called a 'fluid mosaic'?
**Fluid** because phospholipids and many proteins drift sideways; **mosaic** because different molecules are dotted through the bilayer like tiles.
How did the Davson–Danielli model differ from the fluid mosaic model?
Davson–Danielli put **two continuous protein layers** coating the bilayer; the fluid mosaic model **scatters proteins through** it.
What evidence supported the fluid mosaic model over Davson–Danielli?
Electron-microscopy images showing **proteins embedded within** the bilayer, not just coating its surfaces.
What is the difference between integral and peripheral proteins?
**Integral** proteins are embedded right through the bilayer (e.g. channels, carriers); **peripheral** proteins rest on one surface.
What does 'passive transport' mean?
Movement across a membrane that needs **no energy (ATP)** — particles move **down a gradient** on their own.
Define simple diffusion.
The **net movement of small or non-polar particles** down their concentration gradient, **straight through the phospholipid bilayer**.
Define osmosis.
The net movement of **water** across a **partially permeable membrane**, from **higher water potential (dilute) to lower (concentrated)**.
Which molecules cross the bilayer easily by simple diffusion?
**Small, non-polar** molecules — e.g. **O₂, CO₂** — and **lipid-soluble** molecules such as **steroid hormones**.
Why do non-polar molecules pass straight through the membrane?
The bilayer's core is **non-polar / hydrophobic**, so non-polar molecules are **not repelled** — they dissolve in and pass through.
Why can't charged or large molecules use simple diffusion?
They are **repelled by the hydrophobic core** (or too large), so they need a **protein** to cross.
Which way does water move in osmosis?
From the **more dilute** solution to the **more concentrated** one (high → low **water potential**).
What is water potential?
A measure of how free the water is to move. **Pure water is highest**; adding solute lowers it. Water moves from **high to low** water potential.
What is an aquaporin and what does it do?
A **channel protein** that lets water cross **quickly**, speeding up osmosis. It uses **no ATP** and doesn't change the direction.
Is osmosis active or passive?
**Passive** — it uses no ATP, even when aquaporins speed it up.
How does the concentration gradient affect the rate of diffusion?
A **steeper** gradient gives a **faster** rate of net diffusion; a shallower one gives a slower rate.
On a data graph, what does a rising cell mass tell you?
Water is **entering** the cell (net water movement in), so the outside solution is **more dilute / hypotonic**.
On a data graph, what does a falling cell mass tell you?
Water is **leaving** the cell (net water movement out), so the outside solution is **more concentrated / hypertonic**.
Besides the gradient, what else raises the rate of diffusion?
A **higher temperature** and a **larger membrane surface area**; a **thicker** membrane slows it down.
What is facilitated diffusion?
The **passive** movement of **ions and large polar molecules** across a membrane through a **channel or carrier protein**, **down the concentration gradient** (no ATP).
Why can't glucose or ions cross the bilayer directly?
They are **large/polar or charged**, so they are repelled by the **hydrophobic (water-hating) core** of the bilayer — they need a transport protein.
What is a channel protein?
A membrane protein with an **open water-filled pore** that lets specific ions or polar molecules pass **straight through**.
What is a carrier protein?
A membrane protein that **binds** a specific molecule and **changes shape** to move it across the membrane.
How does a channel protein differ from a carrier protein?
A channel is an **open pore** (fast; ions, water); a carrier **binds and changes shape** (slower; glucose, fructose).
In which direction does facilitated diffusion move particles?
**Down the concentration gradient** — from **high** to **low** concentration.
Does facilitated diffusion use ATP?
**No** — it is **passive**, because particles move down their concentration gradient.
What is the only difference between simple and facilitated diffusion?
The **route**: simple diffusion goes **straight through the bilayer**; facilitated diffusion goes **through a protein**. Both are passive and down the gradient.
Which type of protein typically moves ions like Na⁺ and K⁺?
A **channel protein** (an open pore).
Which type of protein typically moves sugars like glucose and fructose?
A **carrier protein** (it binds and changes shape).
Why does the rate of facilitated diffusion level off at high concentration?
The transport proteins become **saturated** — every channel/carrier is occupied, so the rate reaches a **maximum** and cannot rise further.
How do aquaporins relate to facilitated diffusion?
Aquaporins are **channel proteins** for **water** — water crosses through them by facilitated diffusion (a fast, passive route).
What is active transport?
The movement of a substance **against** its concentration gradient, using energy from **ATP**.
How is active transport different from diffusion?
Active transport moves particles **against** the gradient and **uses ATP**; diffusion is passive — **down** the gradient with **no ATP**.
Which protein uses ATP to move particles against a concentration gradient?
A **pump protein** (the protein responsible for active transport).
What two words tell you a process is active transport?
**'Against' the gradient** and **'uses ATP'** — either one signals active transport.
What does the sodium-potassium pump do per ATP?
Pumps **3 sodium ions (Na⁺) out** of the cell and **2 potassium ions (K⁺) in**, both against their gradients.
Which way does the Na⁺/K⁺ pump move each ion?
**Sodium (Na⁺) OUT**, **potassium (K⁺) IN**.
Why must the sodium-potassium pump run continuously?
Because ions constantly **leak back** down their gradients; the pump keeps replacing them to **maintain** the gradients.
How does a cell maintain a high internal K⁺ and low internal Na⁺?
By **active transport** — the Na⁺/K⁺ pump uses **ATP** to keep moving ions against their gradients.
What happens to ion gradients if the cell runs out of ATP?
The pump stops, ions keep leaking back, and the gradients gradually **even out**.
Is active transport passive or does it need energy?
It **needs energy** — it always uses **ATP**.
Name the three ways molecules cross the bilayer.
**Simple diffusion**, **facilitated diffusion** (both passive) and **active transport** (active, uses ATP).
Give one example of active transport other than the Na⁺/K⁺ pump.
Uptake of **mineral ions by plant root cells** against their concentration gradient.
What does 'selectively (partially) permeable' mean?
The membrane lets **some substances cross but blocks others**, mainly depending on their **size** and whether they are **polar**.
Which kinds of molecule cross the bilayer freely?
**Small, non-polar** molecules such as **oxygen** and **carbon dioxide** (water crosses too, helped by aquaporins).
Which kinds of molecule cannot cross the bilayer at all?
**Large** molecules such as **starch** and **proteins** — they are too big to pass through.
What is dialysis (Visking) tubing used for?
As a **model** of a partially permeable membrane: its pores let **small** molecules through but hold back **large** ones.
In the dialysis-tubing model, what happens to glucose and starch?
**Glucose passes out** through the pores (it is small); **starch stays inside** (it is too large).
Why does starch stay inside the dialysis tubing?
Its molecules are **too large** to fit through the pores of the partially permeable tubing.
What is bulk transport?
Moving **large amounts of material**, or particles too big to cross the bilayer, **in vesicles** — it **uses ATP**.
Define endocytosis.
Bulk transport that brings material **INTO** the cell: the membrane **folds inwards** and pinches off a vesicle around the material.
Define exocytosis.
Bulk transport that releases material **OUT** of the cell: a vesicle **fuses** with the plasma membrane and empties its contents.
Does bulk transport require energy?
**Yes** — both endocytosis and exocytosis **use ATP**, so bulk transport is **active**.
Give a cellular use of endocytosis.
Taking in **large food particles** or engulfing a **pathogen** (e.g. a white blood cell engulfing a bacterium).
Give a cellular use of exocytosis.
**Secreting** proteins, **enzymes** or **hormones** (e.g. a gland cell releasing a digestive enzyme).
How can you remember endo vs exo?
**Endo** = **into** the cell ('enter'); **exo** = **exit** the cell.
What is an organelle?
A structure inside a cell that carries out a **specific function** (a 'little organ').
What is a membrane-bound organelle?
An organelle **surrounded by its own membrane** (e.g. nucleus, mitochondrion, Golgi apparatus).
What is the function of the nucleus?
It **holds the cell's DNA** and **controls** the cell's activities.
What is the function of the mitochondrion?
It is the site of **aerobic respiration**, releasing **energy (ATP)** for the cell.
What is the function of a ribosome?
It **builds proteins** by joining amino acids (protein synthesis).
Which organelle is NOT membrane-bound?
The **ribosome** — it is the only organelle without a membrane.
What is the function of the rough endoplasmic reticulum (rough ER)?
It **makes and transports proteins** (its surface is studded with ribosomes).
What is the function of the Golgi apparatus?
It **modifies, packages and sorts proteins** into **vesicles** for transport or export.
Which organelle packages and modifies polypeptides into vesicles?
The **Golgi apparatus**.
Name the three organelles of the protein-export 'production line', in order.
**Ribosomes / rough ER → Golgi apparatus → vesicle** (build → package → transport out).
How can you tell a structure belongs to a eukaryotic cell?
If it is a **membrane-bound organelle** — prokaryotes have no membrane-bound organelles, only ribosomes.
In an identify-and-state question, what two things must you give for each organelle?
Its correct **name** AND a **specific function** (a vague function scores no marks).
What does 'compartmentalization' mean in a cell?
**Dividing the inside of the cell into separate membrane-bound spaces** (compartments) — most are the membrane-bound organelles.
What is a membrane-bound organelle?
An organelle surrounded by its own membrane (e.g. nucleus, mitochondrion, lysosome), creating a **compartment** separate from the cytoplasm.
Give one advantage of compartmentalization.
It **separates incompatible reactions** (or: concentrates enzymes/substrates; encloses harmful substances; adds membrane surface; keeps local optimum conditions).
Why does concentrating enzymes and substrates in a compartment help?
The molecules for a reaction are gathered in a **small space**, so the reaction happens **faster**.
Why is it useful to enclose digestive enzymes in a lysosome?
The membrane keeps the enzymes **separate**, so they **cannot digest or damage the rest of the cell**.
How can folded internal membranes help a compartment?
They provide extra **membrane surface area** for membrane-bound reactions (e.g. the folded inner membrane of a mitochondrion).
What general rule links organelle number to a cell's job?
**More of an organelle = more of its job** — a cell that does a lot of a process has a lot of the organelle that carries it out.
A cell has many mitochondria. What does its job involve?
A lot of **aerobic respiration** to release **ATP** — so the cell is very **active** (e.g. a muscle cell).
A cell has extensive endoplasmic reticulum. What does its job involve?
A lot of **making and processing molecules** (proteins, lipids, detoxification) — e.g. a liver cell.
How do you answer a 'Suggest why this cell has lots of organelle X' question?
**Link structure to function** — state what organelle X does, then say the cell does a **lot** of that process.
Why does naming an organelle alone score no marks?
The mark is for the **link** between the feature and the cell's function, not for the label itself.
Do prokaryotic cells have internal compartments?
**No** — they have no membrane-bound organelles, so their reactions share one space (the cytoplasm).
Which four structures are found in EVERY cell?
**DNA, cytoplasm, a plasma membrane and ribosomes** — present in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
What is an organelle?
A **structure inside a cell** that carries out a particular job (e.g. nucleus, mitochondrion, chloroplast).
Define a prokaryotic cell.
A cell with **no nucleus and no membrane-bound organelles**; its DNA is free in the cytoplasm (e.g. a bacterium).
Define a eukaryotic cell.
A cell that keeps its DNA inside a **nucleus** and contains **membrane-bound organelles** (e.g. animal, plant, fungal cells).
What single structure separates prokaryotes from eukaryotes?
The **nucleus** — prokaryotes have none (DNA free in the cytoplasm); eukaryotes enclose their DNA in a nucleus.
Name an organelle found in plant cells but not animal cells.
A **chloroplast** (also acceptable: large central vacuole, or cellulose cell wall).
Name a structure common to prokaryotic AND eukaryotic cells.
**Ribosomes** (also: plasma membrane, DNA, cytoplasm).
Which three structures do plant cells have that animal cells lack?
A **cellulose cell wall**, **chloroplasts** and a **large central vacuole**.
Do both plant and animal cells have mitochondria?
**Yes** — both are eukaryotic, so both have a nucleus, mitochondria, ribosomes and a plasma membrane.
Why is 'has a cell wall' a weak answer for identifying a plant cell?
Because plants (cellulose), fungi (chitin) and most bacteria (peptidoglycan) all have cell walls — the material differs.
A cell has a nucleus and a cell wall but no chloroplast. What is it likely to be?
A **fungal cell** — eukaryotic with a wall, but no chloroplast (so not a plant).
In a tick table, how do you read off the cell type quickly?
No nucleus → **prokaryote**; nucleus + chloroplast → **plant**; nucleus, no chloroplast → **animal**.
Are prokaryotic or eukaryotic cells generally larger?
**Eukaryotic** cells are larger (about 10–100 µm); prokaryotes are smaller (about 1–5 µm).
What does the endosymbiotic theory state?
Mitochondria and chloroplasts began as **free-living prokaryotes** that were **engulfed** by a host cell and **survived inside it**, becoming organelles.
What does 'endosymbiosis' literally mean?
'**Endo**' = inside, '**symbiosis**' = living together — one cell living permanently inside another, with both benefiting.
Which bacterium became the mitochondrion?
An **aerobic (oxygen-using) bacterium** — it carries out aerobic respiration to release energy for the host.
Which bacterium became the chloroplast?
A **photosynthetic bacterium** — it makes food using light, in plant and algal cells.
What is the sequence of endosymbiosis?
**Engulf** the bacterium -> it **survives** inside -> the relationship **benefits both** -> the bacterium is **kept** and becomes an organelle.
By what process did the host cell take in the bacterium?
**Endocytosis** — the host membrane folded around the bacterium, so it ended up inside a vesicle.
List the four pieces of evidence for endosymbiosis.
Each organelle has its **own DNA**, its **own 70S ribosomes**, a **double membrane**, and divides by **binary fission**.
What size are the ribosomes inside a mitochondrion or chloroplast?
**70S** — the smaller, bacterial type. The host cell's cytoplasm uses larger **80S** ribosomes.
Why does a chloroplast have a double membrane?
The **inner** membrane is the bacterium's own; the **outer** membrane came from the host's vesicle when the bacterium was engulfed.
Why does a leaf cell contain two different sizes of ribosome?
The cytoplasm uses **80S** ribosomes, but the chloroplast keeps the **70S** ribosomes of its free-living bacterial ancestor.
How do mitochondria and chloroplasts reproduce inside the cell?
By **binary fission** — splitting in two on their own, just like the free-living bacteria they descended from.
Why are chloroplasts found only in plants and algae, but mitochondria in almost all eukaryotes?
Only some cells engulfed the **photosynthetic** partner (-> chloroplast); the **aerobic** partner (-> mitochondrion) was engulfed by the ancestor of nearly all eukaryotes.
What is differentiation?
The process by which an **unspecialized cell** develops into a **specialized cell** with a particular structure and function.
What is an unspecialized cell?
A cell that has **no particular job yet** and can still develop into different cell types (e.g. a stem cell).
What is a specialized cell?
A cell with a **particular structure suited to one particular function** (e.g. a neuron or red blood cell).
Name the process that produces specialized cells such as neurons from unspecialized cells.
**Differentiation**.
What process is required to develop specialized tissues in a multicellular organism?
**Differentiation** — it produces the specialized cell types that group into tissues.
How does cell division differ from differentiation?
**Cell division (mitosis)** makes **more** cells (identical copies); **differentiation** makes cells **different** (specialized).
Which process increases the NUMBER of cells?
**Cell division (mitosis)** — it makes more identical cells.
Which process increases the VARIETY of cell types?
**Differentiation** — it makes cells become different from one another.
In what order do division and differentiation build a body?
First **cell division** makes many identical cells, then **differentiation** makes them into specialized types.
Why does a multicellular organism need differentiation?
So cells can **specialize for one job each** (division of labour), letting the whole organism do many jobs efficiently.
Where does the word 'differentiation' come from?
From **'different'** — it makes cells become **different from one another** (specialized).
Do all the specialized cells in one organism contain the same genes?
**Yes** — they all came from the same original cell and share the same genes, but they differentiated into different types.
What is differentiation?
The process by which an **unspecialized cell becomes a specialized cell** with a particular structure and function.
Do all body cells of an organism have the same genome?
**Yes** — every body cell carries the same complete set of genes (the same genome).
If the genome is the same in every cell, what makes cell types differ?
**Different genes are expressed** (switched on) in each cell type — not different genes present.
What is gene expression?
Switching a gene **'on'** so it is used to make its **protein**. An expressed gene is active; an unexpressed gene is silent.
What is selective gene expression?
Expressing **only some** of the genes in the genome — different genes in different cell types — so each cell makes only the proteins it needs.
What tells a cell which genes to switch on during development?
**Chemical signal gradients** — the concentration of signalling molecule a cell meets depends on its **position**.
What is a concentration gradient of a signal?
A smooth change in the concentration of a signalling molecule — **high near its source**, lower further away.
How does position in a gradient affect a cell?
A cell's **position** sets the **signal concentration** it meets, which switches on a **particular set of genes**, deciding the cell type it becomes.
What is the outcome when an unspecialized cell meets a signal gradient?
It **differentiates** — switching on specific genes and becoming a specialized cell type.
Why do expressed genes make a cell specialized?
The genes switched on are used to make **specific proteins**, which give the cell its specialized **structure and function**.
Are genes deleted from a cell when it differentiates?
**No** — unused genes are switched **off**, not removed. The cell keeps the full genome.
State the cause-and-effect chain of differentiation.
Position in gradient → **signal concentration** detected → **genes** switched on → **proteins** made → specialized **cell type**.
What is a stem cell?
An **unspecialized** cell that can **self-renew** (keep dividing) and **differentiate** into specialized cell types.
What are the two defining properties of a stem cell?
**Self-renewal** (divides to make more stem cells) and **differentiation** (becomes specialized cells). Both are needed.
Define potency.
A measure of **how many different cell types** a stem cell can differentiate into.
What does totipotent mean, and give an example?
Can become **any cell type plus the placenta**. Example: the **zygote** / very early embryo.
What does pluripotent mean, and give an example?
Can become **any cell type of the body** (but not the placenta). Example: **embryonic stem cells**.
What does multipotent mean, and give an example?
Can become a **limited family of related** cell types. Example: **blood-forming cells in red bone marrow**.
What does unipotent mean?
Can become **only one** cell type.
What is the key difference between totipotent and pluripotent cells?
**Totipotent** cells can also form the **placenta**; **pluripotent** cells cannot.
How does potency change as cells develop?
Potency **decreases** (and specialization increases) as cells differentiate — adult stem cells are usually only multipotent or unipotent.
What is a stem-cell niche?
The **location in the body** where a particular stem cell is found (e.g. red bone marrow for blood-forming stem cells).
Classify a blood-forming stem cell by potency and niche.
**Multipotent** (forms the family of blood cells); niche = the **red bone marrow**.
Where are pluripotent stem cells found in a developing organism?
In the **early embryo** — they are the **embryonic stem cells**.
What is a stem cell?
An **unspecialized** cell that can **divide (self-renew)** and **differentiate** into one or more specialized cell types.
Which two properties make stem cells useful in medicine?
They can **divide** to make many cells, and they can **differentiate** into the specialized cell type that is needed.
What is self-renewal?
A stem cell's ability to **divide by mitosis** to make more cells (including more stem cells), so the supply is not used up.
What is differentiation?
The process by which an **unspecialized** cell becomes a **specialized** cell with a particular structure and function.
How do stem cells treat a disease that destroys a cell type?
They **divide** to make many new cells, then **differentiate** into the exact lost cell type, replacing the missing cells and restoring function.
Why are stem cells suitable to replace cells the body cannot regrow?
Because they can **divide** to make enough cells and **differentiate** into the specific specialized cell that was lost.
Where do embryonic stem cells come from, and how flexible are they?
From **very early embryos**; they can become **almost any** cell type (very flexible).
Where do adult (tissue) stem cells come from?
From **body tissues** such as **bone marrow**; they can become only a **few** related cell types.
What is the main ethical issue with embryonic stem cells?
They are taken from an **early embryo**, which would otherwise develop — this raises **ethical objections**.
Why do adult stem cells raise fewer ethical concerns?
**No embryo is used** — they are taken from body tissues, often from the patient themselves.
Give one therapeutic use of stem cells.
**Replacing cells lost to disease or injury** (e.g. blood, nerve or skin cells) that the body cannot regrow on its own.
In stem-cell data, what shows division and what shows differentiation?
A **rise in cell number** shows **division**; the appearance of **named specialized cells** shows **differentiation**.
What is a specialized cell?
A cell whose **structure is adapted** to carry out a **particular function** efficiently.
How do cells become specialized?
By **differentiation** — switching on (expressing) a particular set of their genes.
What is the single rule for this whole topic?
**Structure follows function** — a cell's shape and contents match the job it does.
How does a red blood cell's structure suit carrying oxygen?
**Biconcave** shape (large surface area) and **no nucleus** → more room for **haemoglobin** to carry O₂.
How is an intestine lining cell adapted to absorb nutrients?
**Microvilli** give a large **surface area**; **many mitochondria** supply **energy (ATP)** for active transport.
How is a sperm cell adapted to its function?
A **tail (flagellum)** and many **mitochondria** → energy to **swim** to the egg.
How is a neuron adapted to its function?
A very **long fibre (axon)** → carries **electrical impulses** over long distances.
How is a palisade mesophyll cell adapted for photosynthesis?
**Column shape near the upper leaf surface**, packed with **chloroplasts** → absorbs the most **light**.
How is a root hair cell adapted to its function?
A **long, thin projection** into the soil → large **surface area** to absorb **water and minerals**.
Which specialized cell is the largest, and why?
The **egg cell (ovum)** — it stores **food reserves** for the early embryo.
Which specialized cells are among the smallest?
The **sperm cell** (stripped down to swim) and the **red blood cell** (small and flexible for capillaries).
How should you answer 'Explain how structure adapts a cell to its function'?
In **feature → function pairs** — name a structure AND the job it makes possible; one mark per linked pair.
What is a 'typical' cell?
A cell that fits the standard description: **one nucleus**, **microscopic** size, and its **own sealed membrane** (and wall in plants/fungi).
What does 'atypical cell' mean?
A cell that **does not fit the typical description** — e.g. it lacks a nucleus, has many nuclei, is unusually large, or shares its cytoplasm.
What does 'anucleate' mean?
Having **no nucleus**. ('a-' = without.)
What does 'multinucleate' mean?
Having **many nuclei** inside one cell or fibre. ('multi-' = many.)
What does 'aseptate' mean?
Having **no cross-walls (septa)**, so the cytoplasm is **continuous** — seen in some fungal hyphae.
Name two anucleate (atypical) cells.
A **mature mammalian red blood cell** and a **phloem sieve tube element** — both lose their nucleus.
Which atypical cell is multinucleate, and why?
A **skeletal (striated) muscle fibre** — many cells **fuse** into one long fibre with many nuclei.
Why does a red blood cell lose its nucleus?
To leave **more room for haemoglobin**, so it can **carry more oxygen**.
Why is a giant single-celled alga atypical?
It breaks the rule that cells are microscopic — a **single cell** can be **several centimetres long**.
What is unusual about an aseptate fungal hypha?
It has **no cross-walls**, so the **cytoplasm is continuous** and **many nuclei are shared** along the thread.
Are atypical features faults or adaptations?
**Adaptations** — each unusual feature usually helps the cell do a **specific job**.
How can counting nuclei help spot an atypical cell?
**Zero** nuclei = anucleate; **many** nuclei = multinucleate; **one** nucleus = typical.
What is a gas-exchange surface?
The thin boundary where gases pass between the body and the environment — e.g. the wall of an **alveolus** in the lung.
By what process do gases cross a gas-exchange surface?
**Diffusion** — the passive net movement of particles from **high** to **low** concentration.
Why is no energy needed for gas exchange?
Diffusion is **passive**: particles move on their own down the **concentration gradient**, so no energy (ATP) is used.
Name the four features of a good gas-exchange surface.
**Large** surface area, **thin** (short diffusion distance), **moist** and **permeable**.
Why does a large surface area help gas exchange?
More gas can diffuse across **at the same time**, so exchange is faster.
Why does a thin surface help gas exchange?
The wall is only **one cell thick**, giving a **short diffusion distance**, so diffusion is fast.
Why is the gas-exchange surface moist?
A thin film of water lets the gases **dissolve** before they cross the membrane.
In which direction does oxygen diffuse in the lungs?
From the **alveolar air into the blood** (from higher to lower oxygen concentration).
In which direction does carbon dioxide diffuse in the lungs?
From the **blood into the alveolar air** (from higher to lower carbon dioxide concentration).
How does ventilation help maintain the gradient?
Fresh air keeps alveolar **oxygen high** and **carbon dioxide low**, so the gradient stays steep.
How does blood flow help maintain the gradient?
It carries blood away and brings fresh blood in, keeping capillary **oxygen low** and **carbon dioxide high**.
What happens to diffusion if the concentrations on both sides become equal?
Net diffusion **stops** — which is why the gradient must be kept **steep** by ventilation and blood flow.
What is an alveolus?
A tiny **air sac** in the lung where **gas exchange** between air and blood takes place.
Which two gases are exchanged at an alveolus, and in which direction?
**Oxygen** diffuses from the air into the blood; **carbon dioxide** diffuses from the blood into the air.
List the adaptations of an alveolus for gas exchange.
**Large surface area**, wall **one cell thick** (short diffusion distance), **moist lining**, and a **rich blood supply**.
Why are there millions of tiny alveoli rather than one large sac?
Many tiny sacs pack a **huge total surface area** into the chest, and surface area controls how fast gases diffuse.
What is the function of a type I pneumocyte?
It is a **thin, flat cell** forming most of the alveolar wall, giving a **short diffusion distance** — it is the gas-exchange surface.
What is the function of a type II pneumocyte?
It **secretes surfactant** onto the moist alveolar lining.
What is the function of a phagocyte in the alveolus?
It **engulfs and digests** pathogens, dust and debris that are breathed in, keeping the surface clean.
What is surfactant?
A fluid secreted by type II pneumocytes that **lowers the surface tension** of the moist alveolar lining.
What is the role of surfactant? (2 marks)
It **lowers surface tension**, so alveoli **do not collapse** on exhalation and the lungs are **easier to inflate**.
Why does a thin alveolar wall help gas exchange?
A wall **one cell thick** gives a **short diffusion distance**, so gases cross the wall quickly.
Why does a rich capillary network help gas exchange?
It keeps a **steep concentration gradient** by carrying gases away, so diffusion stays fast.
Predict the consequence of destroying the type II pneumocytes.
**No surfactant** is made → surface tension stays high → **alveoli collapse** → reduced gas exchange.
What is ventilation?
The movement of **air into and out of the lungs** (breathing) — it keeps fresh air at the gas-exchange surface.
Do the lungs have their own muscle to pull air in?
**No** — lungs have no muscle. The **diaphragm** and **intercostal muscles** change the chest's volume to move air.
What is the diaphragm and what does it do when it contracts?
A sheet of muscle below the lungs. When it **contracts** it **flattens and moves down**, increasing the volume of the thorax.
Where are the intercostal muscles, and what do the external ones do during inhalation?
Between the ribs. The **external intercostals contract** to pull the ribs **up and out**.
Give the cause-effect chain for breathing.
**Muscles → volume → pressure → air flow.** Muscles change the volume, which changes the pressure, and air moves down the pressure gradient.
During inhalation, what happens to thoracic volume and pressure?
Volume **increases**, so pressure **falls below atmospheric** — and air flows **in**.
During exhalation, what happens to thoracic volume and pressure?
Volume **decreases**, so pressure **rises above atmospheric** — and air flows **out**.
Why does air flow into the lungs during inhalation?
Because the pressure inside has **fallen below atmospheric**, and air always moves from **high to low** pressure.
Is resting exhalation active or passive?
**Passive** — the muscles simply **relax** (no contraction needed); the diaphragm domes up and the ribs drop.
What causes the thorax to expand during inspiration?
The **diaphragm and external intercostal muscles contracting**.
Name a muscle group besides the diaphragm that contracts to cause inspiration.
The **external intercostal muscles**.
On a lung-pressure trace, how do you spot inhalation versus exhalation?
Pressure **below** atmospheric = **inhaling** (volume rising); pressure **above** atmospheric = **exhaling** (volume falling).
How do volume and pressure change relative to each other?
In **opposite** directions — bigger volume means lower pressure, smaller volume means higher pressure.
What is a spirometer?
An instrument that **measures the air a person breathes in and out**, recording it as a **trace** of lung volume against time.
Define tidal volume (TV).
The volume of air in **one normal, resting breath** — the height of one small wave on the trace.
Define vital capacity (VC).
The **largest volume of air moved in one breath**: IRV + TV + ERV (deepest breath in to fullest breath out).
Define residual volume (RV).
Air that **always stays in the lungs** and cannot be breathed out — so it never appears on the trace.
How do you read vital capacity off a trace?
Measure the volume from the **top of the deepest breath in** to the **bottom of the fullest breath out**.
How do you find the ventilation rate from a trace?
**Count the complete waves (breaths) in one minute.**
What is the function of the one-way valves in a spirometer?
They keep **inhaled and exhaled air on separate tubes** so the two airstreams do not mix.
What does the soda lime do in a spirometer?
It **absorbs the carbon dioxide breathed out**, so the person re-breathes air without a CO₂ build-up.
Why does the resting baseline slope downward over time?
**Oxygen is used up in respiration** and the **CO₂ is absorbed by the soda lime (not replaced)**, so the total gas in the closed circuit falls.
During inspiration, does the spirometer pen rise or fall?
It **rises** — air is drawn out of the chamber, the drum sinks and the pen goes up.
How does the trace change during exercise?
The waves become **taller (larger tidal volume)** and **closer together (faster rate)**, raising the air inhaled per minute.
How does total lung capacity relate to vital capacity?
**Total lung capacity = vital capacity + residual volume** — the residual volume can never be breathed out.
What is emphysema?
A lung disease in which the **walls between alveoli are destroyed**, so the sacs merge into **fewer, larger** spaces with a much smaller surface area for gas exchange.
What is the DIRECT effect of alveolar destruction in emphysema?
A **reduced surface area** for gas exchange.
Why does emphysema slow oxygen uptake into the blood?
Less surface area (and a longer / damaged diffusion path) means oxygen diffuses into the blood **more slowly**.
What is elastic recoil, and what happens to it in emphysema?
Elastic recoil lets the lung spring back to push air out. In emphysema it is **lost**, so air is **trapped** and exhaling is hard.
Name the TWO ways emphysema impairs gas exchange.
It **reduces the surface area** (fewer, larger sacs) AND it **loses elastic recoil** (air is trapped).
How does emphysema affect a person during exercise?
They cannot raise oxygen uptake enough to meet demand, so they become **breathless**, tire quickly and have **limited exercise** capacity.
What is the main cause of emphysema?
**Smoking** (cigarette smoke); **air pollution** also contributes.
What national change would most reduce emphysema incidence?
**Reducing smoking** (anti-smoking laws, stop-smoking support) and **cutting air pollution**.
Why is a large surface area important for gas exchange?
A larger surface area lets **more oxygen diffuse per breath** — emphysema reduces it, so gas exchange slows.
In emphysema, do the alveoli become smaller or larger?
**Larger** — small sacs merge into fewer, larger spaces (so there is less surface area).
Define alveolus.
A tiny **air sac** in the lung where gas exchange occurs; its wall is one cell thick, and millions give a large surface area.
Memory hook for emphysema?
'**Fewer, bigger, slower**' — fewer, bigger air sacs make gas exchange slower.
What is a stoma?
A small **pore** in the leaf surface (mostly the underside) through which **gases enter and leave** the leaf.
What do guard cells do?
The two cells either side of a stoma that change shape to **open or close the pore**, controlling gas exchange and water loss.
On which leaf surface are most stomata found?
The **lower (under) surface** — this reduces water loss while still allowing gas exchange.
What is the palisade mesophyll, and what does it do?
A layer of **tall cells packed with chloroplasts** near the upper surface; it carries out **most of the photosynthesis**.
What is the spongy mesophyll, and what do its air spaces do?
A layer of **loosely-packed cells with large air spaces**; the spaces let **gases diffuse** to and from every cell.
Why is a leaf thin and flat?
**Thin** = short diffusion distance for gases; **flat and wide** = large surface area for light and gas exchange.
By what process do gases move in and out of a leaf?
**Diffusion** — from a higher to a lower concentration, with no energy needed.
Trace the path of CO₂ from the air into a chloroplast.
In through a **stoma** → through the **spongy-mesophyll air spaces** → across the **cell wall and membrane** → into a **chloroplast**.
What does the waxy cuticle do?
It is a **transparent, waterproof** coating that **reduces water loss** while still letting light through.
What gases enter and leave during photosynthesis in a leaf?
**CO₂ diffuses in**; **O₂ (and water vapour) diffuse out** — through the stomata.
Why does the spongy mesophyll have air spaces?
So **CO₂ can reach every cell** and **O₂ can diffuse away** — they are the leaf's internal corridors for gases.
What is the upper epidermis like, and why?
A single layer of **transparent, tightly-packed cells with no chloroplasts**, so **light passes through** to the palisade cells below.
In which direction does an artery carry blood?
**Away** from the heart (remember: **A**rtery = **A**way).
In which direction does a vein carry blood?
**Towards** the heart (it returns blood to the heart).
Describe the wall of an artery.
**Thick, muscular and elastic**, with a **narrow lumen** — built to withstand **high pressure**.
Describe the wall of a vein.
**Thin**, with a **wide lumen** and **valves** — it carries blood at **low pressure**.
How thick is the wall of a capillary?
**One cell thick** — this gives a short diffusion distance for **exchange**.
Why is an artery wall thick, muscular and elastic?
To **withstand high pressure**: it **stretches** during each surge and **recoils** to push the blood onward.
Why do veins have valves?
Blood in veins is at **low pressure**, so it could flow backwards — **valves close to stop backflow**.
Why do arteries not need valves?
Their blood is at **high pressure**, which keeps it flowing forwards, so valves are not needed.
How is a capillary adapted for exchange?
**Wall one cell thick** (short diffusion distance) and a **large surface area** close to every cell.
What is the lumen of a blood vessel?
The **hollow space inside** the vessel through which the blood flows.
Which vessel has the widest lumen relative to its wall — artery or vein?
The **vein** — thin wall and wide lumen; the artery has a thick wall and narrow lumen.
How can you identify an artery on a micrograph?
It has the **thicker wall** and the **narrower lumen** of the two vessels.
Why does the aorta show a smaller pressure change than the ventricle?
Its **elastic wall stretches** during the surge and **recoils** between beats, **smoothing** the pressure.
Where in the circulation does exchange of materials with the tissues happen?
In the **capillaries** — the only vessels with a wall one cell thick.
What are the four chambers of the heart?
Two **atria** (upper, thin-walled, receive blood) and two **ventricles** (lower, thick-walled, pump blood out).
What is the job of an atrium?
An **atrium** receives blood from the veins and passes it down into a **ventricle**. Atria have thin walls.
What is the job of a ventricle?
A **ventricle** pumps blood out into an artery. Ventricles have thick, muscular walls.
Which chamber has the thickest wall, and why?
The **left ventricle** — it pumps blood to the **whole body** at high pressure, so it needs the most muscle.
Which side of the heart carries deoxygenated blood?
The **right side** — it receives deoxygenated blood from the body and pumps it to the **lungs**.
Which side of the heart carries oxygenated blood?
The **left side** — it receives oxygenated blood from the lungs and pumps it to the **body**.
What is the cardiac cycle?
One complete heartbeat: the repeating sequence of **contraction (systole)** and **relaxation (diastole)** of the heart chambers.
What are the three stages of the cardiac cycle?
**Atrial systole** (atria contract), **ventricular systole** (ventricles contract) and **diastole** (chambers relax and refill).
What causes the two heart sounds ('lub-dub')?
Valves shutting: **'lub'** = the AV valves closing, **'dub'** = the semilunar valves closing.
When does a heart valve open?
When the pressure **behind** it becomes **higher** than the pressure **in front** of it.
What is double circulation?
Blood passes through the heart **twice** per body circuit — once for the **lungs** (pulmonary circuit) and once for the **body** (systemic circuit).
Why is double circulation an advantage?
The heart **re-pressurises** blood after the lungs, so the body receives **high-pressure** blood, and oxygenated and deoxygenated blood stay **separate**.
Trace deoxygenated blood from the body to the lungs.
Vena cava → **right atrium** → **right ventricle** → **pulmonary artery** → lungs.
Trace oxygenated blood from the lungs to the body.
Pulmonary vein → **left atrium** → **left ventricle** → **aorta** → body.
Which vessels break the 'arteries carry oxygenated blood' rule?
The **pulmonary artery** (deoxygenated) and the **pulmonary vein** (oxygenated).
What is blood pressure?
The **force** that flowing blood exerts on the **walls of the arteries**, written as two numbers (e.g. 120/80).
What is systolic blood pressure?
The **higher** number — the pressure when the **ventricles contract** and push blood into the arteries.
What is diastolic blood pressure?
The **lower** number — the pressure when the **ventricles relax** between beats and the heart refills.
What is the role of LDLs?
They carry cholesterol **from the liver to the tissues**; excess is **deposited in artery walls** — the 'bad' carrier.
What is the role of HDLs?
They carry **excess cholesterol away** from tissues and arteries **back to the liver** for disposal — the 'good' carrier.
Which is better: high HDL or high LDL?
**High HDL** (removes cholesterol) and **low LDL** (which deposits cholesterol in arteries).
What is atherosclerosis?
The build-up of cholesterol **plaque** in artery walls, which **hardens** and **narrows** the artery.
How does high cholesterol cause coronary heart disease?
Cholesterol is **deposited in artery walls** → **plaque (atherosclerosis)** → **coronary arteries narrow** → **heart muscle gets less oxygen**.
Name three causes of high blood cholesterol.
A **diet high in saturated fat**, **smoking**, **lack of exercise**, **obesity**, or an **inherited (genetic)** tendency.
What health risk is linked to too much salt (sodium)?
It raises **blood pressure** (hypertension), which strains the heart and damages arteries.
Give a short-term effect of exercise on the heart.
**Heart rate** (and stroke volume / cardiac output) **rises** to deliver more oxygen to working muscles.
Give a long-term effect of exercise on the heart.
The **heart muscle gets stronger**, so stroke volume rises and the **resting heart rate falls**.
What are the coronary arteries?
The arteries that supply the **heart muscle itself** with oxygenated blood.
What happens if a coronary artery becomes fully blocked?
Part of the heart muscle is starved of oxygen and dies — a **heart attack**.
What is transpiration?
The **loss of water vapour** from the leaves of a plant, mostly through the **stomata**.
What is the xylem?
Plant tissue made of long, **hollow, dead tubes** that carry **water** (and minerals) **upwards** from roots to leaves.
In which direction does the xylem carry water?
**Upwards only** — roots → stem → leaves. It never carries water back down.
What is the transpiration stream?
The continuous, one-way flow of water from the **roots, up the xylem, to the leaves**, driven by transpiration.
What does 'cohesion' mean in the xylem?
Water molecules **stick to one another**, forming one **continuous, unbroken column**.
What is the 'tension' in cohesion-tension?
The **pull** on the water column created when water **evaporates** at the leaf; it is transmitted down the xylem.
Explain how transpiration pulls water up.
Evaporation at the leaf creates **tension**; **cohesion** keeps the column unbroken, so water is **pulled up** the xylem from the roots.
Give two adaptations of xylem vessels.
They are **hollow dead tubes with no end walls** (one continuous pipe), and have **lignified walls** that stop them collapsing.
Why are xylem walls lignified?
Lignin makes the wall **strong**, so the vessel does **not collapse** under the tension (pull) of the water column.
Where is lignin found in a root cross-section?
In the **xylem** — the water-carrying tubes (the central stele), where the strengthened walls show up.
Which conditions speed up transpiration?
**Hot, dry, windy and bright** conditions — like drying washing on a line.
How does high humidity affect transpiration?
It **slows it down** — moist surrounding air means a smaller difference, so less water diffuses out.
How does light affect transpiration?
Light **opens the stomata**, so more water vapour escapes and the rate **increases**.
Where does water enter the plant?
At the **root hair cells**, which have a large surface area for absorbing water from the soil.
What is the phloem?
The plant transport tissue that carries **dissolved sugar (sucrose)** around the plant; its conducting cells are living **sieve tubes**.
What is translocation?
The movement of **dissolved sugar** through the phloem from a **source** to a **sink**.
What is a source in translocation?
Any part that **makes or releases** sugar — usually a photosynthesising **leaf** (but also a store being broken down).
What is a sink in translocation?
Any part that **uses or stores** sugar — for example a **growing root**, a **fruit**, or a store being built up.
In which direction can translocation occur?
**Either up or down** the plant — it always runs from a source to a sink, wherever those are.
How is sugar loaded into the phloem at the source?
By **active transport** (against its gradient), which uses **ATP**.
Which cell supplies the energy to load sugar into the sieve tube?
The **companion cell** — it is packed with **mitochondria** and keeps the sieve tube alive.
After sugar is loaded, what makes the sap move?
Water **follows by osmosis**, raising the **pressure**, which pushes the sap by **bulk flow** to the sink.
What is bulk flow?
The **mass movement** of the sugary sap along the sieve tubes, driven by the **pressure difference** between source and sink.
Name two structural features of a sieve tube cell.
**Sieve plates with pores** (sap flows between cells) and **little cytoplasm / no nucleus** at maturity (a clear channel); a **companion cell** sits alongside.
Why is phloem described as living tissue?
Its sieve tubes are kept alive by **companion cells**, and translocation **needs energy** — it stops if the cells are killed. (Xylem is dead.)
Give two differences between phloem and xylem.
Phloem carries **sugar**, is **living**, and is **two-way**; xylem carries **water**, is **dead**, and is **one-way** (roots to leaves).
How do animals produce movement?
**Muscles pull on a skeleton** — the muscle contracts and the skeleton acts as a system of levers.
Why can't one muscle move a bone both ways?
A muscle can **only contract (pull)** — it cannot push or lengthen itself, so it moves a bone in one direction only.
What is an antagonistic pair?
Two muscles on **opposite sides of a joint** with **opposite effects** — one bends the joint, its partner straightens it.
At the elbow, which muscle bends it and which straightens it?
The **biceps** contracts to **bend (flex)** the elbow; the **triceps** contracts to **straighten (extend)** it.
Tendon vs ligament?
A **tendon** joins **muscle to bone**; a **ligament** joins **bone to bone**.
List the levels of organisation in a muscle, largest to smallest.
Whole **muscle** → muscle **fibre** (cell) → **myofibril** → **sarcomere** (the contractile unit).
Define a sarcomere.
The **functional contractile unit** of striated muscle — the region **between two adjacent Z-discs**.
Which filament is thin, and where is it anchored?
**Actin** is the **thin** filament; it is **anchored to the Z-discs** and projects inward.
Which filament is thick, where does it sit, and what links it?
**Myosin** is the **thick** filament (with protruding **heads**); it sits in the **centre**, held in register by the **M-line**.
What does titin do?
A giant **elastic** protein: it **anchors myosin to the Z-disc**, keeps it centred, and provides **recoil / elasticity** (springs the sarcomere back, resists overstretching).
What is the I band?
The region containing **actin only** (no myosin) — it appears **light** and spans a Z-disc.
Distinguish the A band from the H zone.
**A band** = the **full length of the myosin** filament (dark, includes the overlap). **H zone** = the **central, myosin-only** part of the A band (no actin overlap).
What is the M-line?
The **central line** that **links the myosin filaments** and holds them in register.
What is the sliding filament model?
During contraction the **actin and myosin filaments slide past each other** so they **overlap more**; the sarcomere shortens but the **filaments do not shorten**.
Do the actin and myosin filaments shorten during contraction?
**No** — they keep the **same length** and simply **slide** to overlap more. Only the **overlap** and the **sarcomere length** change.
What happens to the Z-discs during contraction, and why?
They are **pulled closer together**, because the actin filaments (anchored to them) slide inward, so the **sarcomere shortens**.
What happens to the I band during contraction?
It gets **shorter** — the I band is the **actin-only** region, and more overlap leaves less actin uncovered.
What happens to the H zone during contraction?
It gets **shorter** — the H zone is the **myosin-only** region, and the actin tips slide inward to cover more of the myosin.
Why does the A band stay the same length during contraction?
The **A band equals the length of the myosin filaments**, and **myosin does not shorten** — so the A band is **unchanged**. This shows the filaments slide, not shrink.
How does shortening of sarcomeres lead to a whole muscle shortening?
Sarcomeres are joined **end to end (in series)**; when many shorten **together**, their shortenings **add up** along the fibre, so the **whole muscle** shortens.
At rest, what blocks the myosin-binding sites on actin?
**Tropomyosin** — a thread held in place by **troponin** — lies over and **covers** the binding sites.
What is the role of troponin?
It **holds tropomyosin** in the blocking position and has a **binding site for Ca²⁺**; when Ca²⁺ binds, it moves tropomyosin away.
What is the role of Ca²⁺ in contraction?
It is the **switch**: released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum, it **binds troponin**, which **exposes** the myosin-binding sites.
What are the TWO roles of ATP in one cross-bridge cycle?
One ATP **binds the myosin head to detach** it from actin; that same ATP is then **hydrolysed to re-cock** the head.
What is a 'power stroke'?
The myosin head **pivoting to pull the actin filament toward the centre** of the sarcomere, shortening it.
How does a muscle relax when stimulation stops?
**Ca²⁺ is pumped back** into the sarcoplasmic reticulum, so **tropomyosin re-blocks** the binding sites and no new cross-bridges form.
Why does rigor mortis make a body stiff?
With **no ATP**, the myosin heads **cannot detach** from actin, so the cross-bridges stay **locked**.
Why must skeletal muscles work in antagonistic pairs?
A muscle can only **pull (contract)**, not push — so a **second muscle** pulling the opposite way is needed to **reverse** the movement.
In an antagonistic pair, what is happening to the two muscles during a movement?
One muscle **contracts (pulls)** while its **antagonist relaxes** (and is stretched); they **swap** to reverse the movement.
What do the biceps and triceps each do at the elbow?
**Biceps flexes** (bends) the elbow; **triceps extends** (straightens) it. They are an **antagonistic pair**.
Give the roles of three parts of a synovial joint.
**Cartilage** reduces friction on the bone ends; **synovial fluid** lubricates; **ligaments** hold bones together and **stabilise** the joint.
Hinge joint vs ball-and-socket joint?
**Hinge** (elbow, knee) moves in **one plane**; **ball-and-socket** (hip, shoulder) moves in **many directions** and can rotate.
How does the skeleton act as a lever?
Bones are **levers** that turn about a **joint (pivot)**, so a muscle's pull is converted into a **larger, controlled movement** of the limb.
Tendon vs ligament?
A **tendon** joins **muscle to bone**; a **ligament** joins **bone to bone**.
What is an ecological niche?
An organism's **role** in its ecosystem: the **abiotic conditions** it tolerates, **how it obtains food/energy**, and its **interactions** with other species.
What is the difference between a habitat and a niche?
The **habitat** is **where** an organism lives (its address); the **niche** is **what it does** there and the conditions it needs (its job).
Define an abiotic factor.
A **non-living**, physical or chemical feature of the environment (e.g. temperature, light, pH, dissolved oxygen, salinity).
Define a biotic factor.
A condition created by **other living organisms** (e.g. food supply, predators, competitors, disease).
What is the range of tolerance?
The span of an abiotic factor an organism can survive in — best in the **optimum range**, stressed in the **zones of stress**, and **absent** beyond the **limits of tolerance**.
What happens to an organism in its optimum range?
It is **most abundant and active** — the conditions are ideal for it.
What happens beyond an organism's limits of tolerance?
It is **absent** — it cannot survive there at all.
What is an obligate aerobe?
An organism that **must have oxygen** to survive, because it relies on **aerobic respiration** to release energy.
What is an obligate anaerobe?
An organism for which **oxygen is toxic**; it survives **only where oxygen is absent** (e.g. waterlogged mud).
Why does an obligate aerobe need oxygen?
It must carry out **aerobic respiration** to release enough energy, and aerobic respiration **requires oxygen**.
Name one condition for survival for an aquatic organism, with a reason.
**Dissolved oxygen** — needed for aerobic respiration (for an obligate aerobe).
If a place lacks even one required condition, what happens to the organism?
It is **absent** there, however good the other conditions are.
Define an abiotic factor.
A **non-living**, physical or chemical feature of a habitat — e.g. temperature, water, light, pH or salinity.
Define a biotic factor.
A **living** influence on a habitat — e.g. predators, competitors, food or disease.
Name five common abiotic factors.
**Temperature, water (moisture), light, pH and salinity** (also oxygen, wind, soil minerals).
What is a range of tolerance?
The **span of values** of an abiotic factor over which a species can **survive**; outside it, the species is absent.
What happens to a species near the OPTIMUM of an abiotic factor?
It is most **abundant** — conditions suit it best and its cell processes work well.
What happens BEYOND a species' limit of tolerance?
The species is **absent** — the factor is too high or too low for it to survive.
What is a limiting factor?
The one factor in **short (or excess) supply** that holds a species back and stops it living in a place.
How does temperature affect distribution?
It sets the rate of **enzyme-controlled reactions**; extremes **denature** proteins, so a species is absent where it is too hot or too cold.
How does light affect plant distribution?
Light is needed for **photosynthesis**, so plants are limited to places with **enough light** (e.g. not in deep shade or deep water).
How does water (moisture) affect distribution?
Too **little** water causes dehydration; too **much** can drown roots — so each species is restricted to a moisture range it tolerates.
In a data question, what makes a 'factor' answer score full marks?
Name a specific **abiotic factor** AND give the **reason** for its effect — a bare list of factors only scores half.
Why is a species not found everywhere?
It lives only where the **abiotic conditions stay within its range of tolerance**; outside those limits it cannot survive.
What is a biome?
A **large region** with a particular **climate** and a **characteristic community** of organisms (e.g. tropical rainforest, tundra).
Which two abiotic factors are used most to classify biomes?
**Temperature** and **precipitation** (rainfall).
Define climate.
The typical pattern of **temperature and precipitation** in a region, averaged over many years.
Define an abiotic factor.
A **non-living** physical or chemical feature of the environment (e.g. temperature, rainfall, light, soil).
Hot + very dry climate → which biome?
**Hot desert** — sparse, drought-adapted plants.
Hot + very wet climate → which biome?
**Tropical rainforest** — dense, tall evergreen trees.
Cold climate → which biome?
**Tundra** — low mosses, lichens and small shrubs.
Moderate temperature + moderate-to-high rainfall → which biome?
**Temperate forest** — deciduous broadleaf trees.
On a temperature-vs-precipitation biome graph, how do you identify a biome point?
Read **both** coordinates (its temperature AND its rainfall) and match them to the biome whose climate fits.
Why does a biome's climate decide its community?
Climate sets the **vegetation** that can grow, and the vegetation decides which **animals** can live there.
Why are temperature and rainfall the two key factors?
Plants are the base of the community and are limited most by **how warm it is** and **how much water** there is.
Why do a hot desert and a tropical rainforest differ, though both are hot?
They differ in **rainfall**: the desert is very dry (sparse plants) and the rainforest is very wet (dense trees).
What is an adaptation?
A **feature** (structural, physiological or behavioural) that helps an organism **survive and reproduce** in its environment.
What is a xerophyte?
A plant adapted to live where **water is scarce**, such as a hot desert (e.g. a cactus).
What is a halophyte?
A plant adapted to live in **salty conditions**, such as a mangrove tree in a coastal swamp.
Name three adaptations of a desert (xerophyte) leaf.
**Thick waxy cuticle**, **reduced leaf area** (spines/needles), and **sunken stomata** — all reduce water loss.
How do sunken stomata reduce water loss?
They trap a layer of **humid air** in pits, lowering the water-vapour gradient so **less water escapes**.
Why do some desert plants open their stomata only at night?
Gas exchange then happens when it is **cooler**, so **less water is lost** than during the hot day (CAM).
How does succulent tissue help a desert plant?
It **stores water** taken up during rare rains, for use through long dry periods.
What are pneumatophores and what do they do?
**Aerial 'breathing' roots** of mangroves that grow into the air to **take in oxygen**, because the swamp mud is oxygen-poor.
How do salt glands benefit a mangrove?
They **excrete excess salt**, keeping internal salt low so water can still be **absorbed by osmosis**.
Why is waterlogged mangrove mud a problem for roots?
It contains **very little oxygen**, so the roots struggle to **respire** — solved by aerial roots.
State two ways a flower attracts animal pollinators.
Any two of: **bright colourful petals**, **scent**, sugary **nectar**, a **shape** that fits the pollinator.
How do you turn a habitat's problem into an adaptation?
Name the **problem** (e.g. losing water, no oxygen, too much salt), then the adaptation is whatever **solves it**.
What is an adaptation?
A feature that helps an organism **survive and reproduce** in its particular environment.
What are the three types of animal adaptation?
**Structural** (body parts), **physiological** (internal processes) and **behavioural** (actions).
What is a structural adaptation? Give an example.
A physical **body feature** — its shape, size or parts. Example: a fennec fox's **large ears** that lose heat.
What is a physiological adaptation? Give an example.
A way the body **works on the inside**. Example: making very **concentrated urine** to save water.
What is a behavioural adaptation? Give an example.
Something the animal **does** (an action or habit). Example: **sheltering in a burrow** during the midday heat.
Give one structural, one physiological and one behavioural adaptation to desert heat.
Structural: **large ears** to lose heat. Physiological: **concentrated urine** to save water. Behavioural: being **active at night**.
How do animals adapt to cold environments?
Structural: **thick fur and blubber**, small ears. Physiological: **shivering**. Behavioural: **huddling** or **migrating**.
Name four herbivore adaptations for feeding on plants.
**Grinding teeth**, a **long gut**, **gut microbes** that digest cellulose, and **long feeding times**.
Why do herbivores need gut microbes?
The microbes digest **cellulose** in plant cell walls, which the animal's own enzymes cannot break down.
Give three behaviours that reduce an animal's risk of being eaten while feeding.
Staying **alert (vigilant)**, feeding **in a group**, and feeding **near cover** or at dawn/dusk.
Why is 'large ears' alone not enough to score an adaptation mark?
You must add the **benefit** — large ears, **which lose heat** and keep the animal cool. Name the feature AND say how it helps.
Which command term is used for almost all 2.9.5 questions, and what does it ask?
**Suggest** — apply the idea of adaptation to a **new animal** and give a plausible, reasoned answer.
What is metabolism?
**All** of the **enzyme-catalysed** chemical reactions that take place inside a living organism.
What is anabolism?
The reactions that **build larger molecules** from smaller ones. Anabolism **uses (requires) energy**.
What is catabolism?
The reactions that **break larger molecules** into smaller ones. Catabolism **releases energy**.
What happens to energy in an anabolic reaction?
Energy is **used (required)** to build the larger molecule.
What happens to energy in a catabolic reaction?
Energy is **released** as the larger molecule is broken down.
Which reaction type is usually anabolic?
**Condensation** — it joins subunits to build larger molecules.
Which reaction type is usually catabolic?
**Hydrolysis** — it adds water to break larger molecules into subunits.
Give two examples of anabolic processes.
Making **glycogen** (or starch) from glucose; **protein synthesis**; **photosynthesis**.
Give two examples of catabolic processes.
**Aerobic respiration**; **digestion**; the **hydrolysis** of macromolecules.
How do you decide if a process is anabolic or catabolic?
Ask whether the molecule gets **bigger** (anabolic) or **smaller** (catabolic).
Is forming glycogen from glucose anabolic or catabolic?
**Anabolic** — small glucose subunits are joined into a larger molecule.
Is the hydrolysis of macromolecules anabolic or catabolic?
**Catabolic** — a large molecule is broken down into smaller subunits.
Are metabolic reactions catalysed?
**Yes** — almost all are **enzyme-catalysed**.
What type of molecule is an enzyme?
A **globular protein** that acts as a **biological catalyst**.
Define a catalyst.
A substance that **speeds up a reaction** without being used up, so it can be **reused**.
What is the active site?
The specific **pocket on an enzyme's surface** where the substrate binds; its shape is **complementary** to the substrate.
What is a substrate?
The **reactant molecule** that an enzyme acts on.
What is an enzyme-substrate complex?
The temporary structure formed when a **substrate is bound** to an enzyme's **active site**, just before the reaction.
Why is each enzyme specific?
Its **active site is complementary** in shape to **only one substrate**, so only that substrate can fit and bind.
What does the induced-fit model state?
As the substrate binds, the **active site changes shape slightly** to **mould around it**, helping the reaction occur.
How does induced fit differ from lock-and-key?
Lock-and-key has a **rigid** active site; induced fit has a **flexible** active site that **moulds** around the substrate.
Which binding model does the IB accept as current?
**Induced fit** — the lock-and-key model is older and superseded.
What happens to an enzyme after the reaction?
It is **unchanged** — the products leave and the enzyme can be **reused**.
Name three features shared by all enzymes.
They are **globular proteins**, **biological catalysts**, and each has a **specific active site** (also: specific, reusable/unchanged).
If an enzyme forms a product with only one of several molecules, why?
Only that molecule's shape is **complementary** to the **active site**, so only it can bind and react.
What is activation energy (Eₐ)?
The **minimum energy** the reactants must have for a reaction to **start**.
On an energy profile, where is the activation energy shown?
The **height from the reactants level up to the peak** of the curve.
What is an energy profile?
A graph showing how the **energy of a reacting system changes** as the reaction goes from reactants to products.
How does an enzyme affect the activation energy?
It **lowers** the activation energy.
Why does lowering the activation energy speed up a reaction?
A **smaller barrier** means **more reactant particles have enough energy** to react, so the reaction goes faster.
Does an enzyme change the energy of the reactants or products?
**No** — it lowers only the activation energy; the reactants and products stay at the **same energy levels**.
On a with/without-enzyme graph, which curve is the catalysed one?
The one with the **lower peak / smaller activation-energy barrier**.
What does the left-hand starting level of an energy profile show?
The energy of the **reactants** (substrate).
What does the right-hand finishing level of an energy profile show?
The energy of the **products**.
How do you read the energy released off an energy profile?
The **drop from the reactants level down to the products level**.
Is an enzyme used up in the reaction it speeds up?
**No** — an enzyme is a catalyst; it is **not used up** and can be used again.
What is the peak of the curve on an energy profile called?
The **transition state** — the most unstable, highest-energy point of the reaction.
What three factors affect the rate of an enzyme-controlled reaction?
**Temperature**, **pH** and **substrate concentration**.
What is the optimum temperature of an enzyme?
The temperature at which the enzyme works **fastest** — the peak of the rate-versus-temperature graph.
Why does enzyme rate rise as temperature increases (below the optimum)?
Molecules move **faster**, so the substrate **collides with the active site more often**, increasing the rate.
Why does enzyme rate fall above the optimum temperature?
The enzyme is **denatured** — the **active site changes shape**, so the substrate no longer fits.
What is denaturation?
A (usually permanent) change to the **shape of the active site**, caused by high temperature or extreme pH, that stops the enzyme working.
What does a rate-versus-pH graph look like, and why?
A single **peak** at the **optimum pH**; the rate falls either side because the wrong pH **denatures** the enzyme (distorts the active site).
Why does the rate plateau at high substrate concentration?
All the **active sites are occupied** (the enzymes are **saturated**), so extra substrate cannot speed up the rate.
What is saturation?
The point where **every active site is occupied** by substrate, so adding more substrate does not increase the rate.
At the plateau on the substrate graph, what is the limiting factor?
The **number of enzyme molecules** (active sites) — not the amount of substrate.
How is denaturation different from saturation?
**Denaturation** changes the active-site **shape** (rate falls, enzyme ruined); **saturation** means all sites are **full** (rate plateaus, enzyme unharmed).
On a temperature graph, how do you score the explanation of the falling part?
Name **denaturation** AND give the mechanism: the **active site changes shape so the substrate no longer fits**.
When explaining a data graph, what two things must your answer contain?
The **trend** read off the graph **and** the biological **reason** for it.
What is the independent variable in an enzyme experiment?
The **one factor you deliberately change** (e.g. temperature, pH, or substrate concentration).
What is the dependent variable in an enzyme experiment?
What you **measure** to see the effect — usually the **rate of reaction**.
What is a controlled variable?
A factor **kept constant** in every run so it does not affect the result and the test stays **fair**.
Name the variables that must be controlled when studying an enzyme.
**Temperature, pH, substrate concentration, amount of enzyme and time** — each one affects the rate on its own.
Why must other variables be controlled?
So any change in rate is caused **only** by the factor being tested — this makes the comparison **fair (valid)**.
Give two ways to measure the rate of an enzyme reaction.
E.g. **volume of gas released**, **colour change of an indicator**, time for a substrate to disappear, or **amount of product** formed.
What does it mean to immobilize an enzyme?
To **attach or trap** it on a **solid support** (e.g. gel beads) so it stays in one place instead of mixing freely with the substrate.
What is a free enzyme?
An enzyme **dissolved and mixed freely** in solution with its substrate.
Give three advantages of immobilizing an enzyme.
It can be **reused** (cheaper), the **product stays pure** (no enzyme contamination), and it is **more stable** over a wider range of conditions.
State one application of immobilized enzymes.
Immobilized **lactase** is used to make **lactose-free milk** (it breaks lactose into glucose and galactose).
Why is amino acids released a valid measure of protease activity?
Amino acids are the **product**, so the **more released** per unit time, the **more active** the enzyme — it is proportional to activity.
Why can immobilized enzymes be reused but free enzymes usually can't?
An immobilized enzyme stays **fixed on its support**, so it can be removed and used again; a free enzyme ends up **mixed into the product** and is lost.
What is an intracellular enzyme?
An enzyme that catalyses a reaction **inside** the cell that produced it (e.g. a **respiration** enzyme).
What is an extracellular enzyme?
An enzyme that is **secreted** and catalyses a reaction **outside** the cell (e.g. a **digestive** enzyme).
What does it mean to 'secrete' an enzyme?
To **release** the enzyme out of the cell, through the membrane, into the surroundings.
Give an example of an intracellular enzyme.
A **respiration** enzyme (or catalase breaking down hydrogen peroxide inside the cell).
Give an example of an extracellular enzyme.
A **digestive** enzyme such as **amylase, protease or lipase** — or the enzymes a decomposer secretes onto dead matter.
Why does a cell secrete a digestive enzyme instead of keeping it inside?
Because a large food molecule (e.g. starch, protein) is **too big to cross the cell membrane**; it must be broken into small soluble subunits first.
What does an extracellular digestive enzyme do to a large food molecule?
It **hydrolyses** it into **small, soluble subunits** (e.g. starch → maltose/glucose) that **can be absorbed**.
How do decomposers (saprotrophs) feed?
They **secrete extracellular enzymes** onto dead matter, digest it **externally**, then **absorb** the small soluble products.
Does being secreted change how an enzyme works?
**No** — both intracellular and extracellular enzymes are globular proteins that **lower activation energy**, are **specific** and are **reusable**. Only the location differs.
In a data question, what tells you an enzyme is extracellular?
Its **activity appears outside the cell** (e.g. in the surrounding liquid / culture medium), acting on a substrate the cell has not absorbed.
What is a metabolic pathway?
A linked series of enzyme-controlled reactions where the **product of one reaction is the substrate of the next** — run by intracellular enzymes.
What do 'intra-' and 'extra-' mean?
**Intra** = inside; **extra** = outside — so intracellular acts **inside** the cell and extracellular acts **outside** it.
What does ATP stand for?
**Adenosine triphosphate** — a molecule with **three** phosphate groups.
Why is ATP called the cell's 'energy currency'?
It is the **universal, spendable** form of energy — every energy-requiring process in the cell is paid for in ATP.
Where in ATP is the usable energy stored?
In the **bond to the third phosphate group**.
What is produced when ATP releases its energy?
**ADP + Pi** (adenosine diphosphate + an inorganic phosphate).
Which conversion releases energy: ATP → ADP + Pi, or ADP + Pi → ATP?
**ATP → ADP + Pi** releases energy; **ADP + Pi → ATP** stores it.
What supplies the energy to recharge ADP + Pi back into ATP?
**Cell respiration** — it releases energy from glucose to rebuild ATP.
What is the ATP–ADP cycle?
The continuous interconversion: ATP is broken to **ADP + Pi** (releasing energy) and rebuilt from **ADP + Pi** by respiration (storing energy).
Name two cell processes powered by converting ATP into ADP.
Any two of: **active transport, muscle contraction, synthesis of macromolecules, nerve-impulse transmission**.
Give one feature of ATP that suits it to powering cell processes.
It releases a **small, usable** amount of energy in a **single step** (also: soluble; quickly recharged).
How many phosphate groups do ATP and ADP have?
**ATP has three**; **ADP has two** (one phosphate is removed to release energy).
Is ATP used up permanently, or reused?
**Reused** — each molecule is recharged by respiration and recycled thousands of times a day.
Why is being soluble an advantage for ATP?
Being soluble lets ATP **move freely through the cytoplasm** to wherever in the cell energy is needed.
Why do cells need a constant supply of energy?
For **active transport, building macromolecules, movement and staying organised** — all powered by ATP.
Why can't cells just use the energy in glucose directly?
Glucose's energy must first be **released by respiration**; cells then store a usable share of it in **ATP**.
Define cell respiration.
The **controlled breakdown of glucose** (and other carbon compounds) inside a cell to release energy and regenerate ATP.
What is ATP?
The cell's **immediate, usable energy supply** — its 'energy currency'.
What is the relationship between ATP and ADP?
ATP has three phosphates; removing one gives **ADP**. Adding a phosphate back to ADP (using energy from respiration) **regenerates ATP**.
How is ATP regenerated?
Energy released by **respiring glucose** is used to **add a phosphate to ADP**, remaking ATP.
What happens when a cell USES ATP?
ATP loses its third phosphate, becoming **ADP**, and **energy is released** to do work.
Why is glucose broken down in small steps, not all at once?
Releasing all the energy at once would be **wasteful and could damage the cell**; controlled steps let the cell capture energy in ATP.
What is a respiratory substrate?
The **fuel molecule that is respired** to release energy — most often **glucose**.
Outline how a cell generates ATP.
Respiration **releases energy from glucose**; that energy **adds a phosphate to ADP**, **regenerating ATP**.
In a yeast experiment, what is the function of the sugar (sucrose) added?
It is the **respiratory substrate** — the fuel the yeast **respires to release energy**.
Name three processes a cell spends ATP on.
**Active transport**, **synthesis of macromolecules** (e.g. proteins) and **movement** (e.g. muscle contraction).
What is the key difference between aerobic and anaerobic respiration?
Aerobic respiration **uses oxygen**; anaerobic respiration takes place **without oxygen**.
Define aerobic respiration.
Respiration that **uses oxygen** to break glucose down **fully** into carbon dioxide and water, releasing **a lot** of ATP.
Define anaerobic respiration.
Respiration that happens **without oxygen**; glucose is broken down only **partly**, releasing only **a little** ATP.
Where in the cell does aerobic respiration take place?
In the **mitochondria**.
Where in the cell does anaerobic respiration take place?
In the **cytoplasm**.
What are the products of aerobic respiration?
**Carbon dioxide + water** (in all organisms).
What is the product of anaerobic respiration in animals (and human muscle)?
**Lactate**.
What are the products of anaerobic respiration in yeast?
**Ethanol + carbon dioxide** — the basis of bioethanol, brewing and bread.
Which type of respiration releases more ATP per glucose, and why?
**Aerobic** — because oxygen lets glucose be **fully** broken down, releasing most of its energy.
During intense exercise, what do human muscle cells do when oxygen runs low?
They switch to **anaerobic respiration**, producing **lactate** in the cytoplasm.
How is bioethanol fuel produced?
By **yeast** respiring **anaerobically**: glucose → **ethanol + carbon dioxide**.
What does the prefix 'an-' in 'anaerobic' mean?
'**Without**' — anaerobic respiration happens **without oxygen** (air).
Why does anaerobic respiration release only a little ATP?
Glucose is only **partly** broken down, so **most of its energy stays locked** inside the product (lactate or ethanol).
What does 'respiration rate' mean?
How **fast** an organism respires — usually the **oxygen used** (or **CO₂ produced**) **per unit time**.
What is a respirometer?
Apparatus that measures respiration rate by detecting the **change in gas volume** (usually the **oxygen used up**) as organisms respire.
In a respirometer, why does the coloured liquid move towards the seeds?
The seeds **use up oxygen**, lowering the gas volume, so the liquid is **drawn in**.
Why is potassium hydroxide (KOH) added to a respirometer?
To **absorb the carbon dioxide** released, so the **only** gas change measured is the **oxygen used up**.
Why include a tube of dead (boiled) seeds in a respirometer experiment?
As a **control** — dead seeds don't respire, so the liquid shouldn't move; this proves any movement is caused by **respiration**, not temperature or pressure.
Name four quantities that can be used to measure respiration rate.
**Oxygen used**, **carbon dioxide produced**, **temperature rise**, and **mass lost**.
Which gas does aerobic respiration use up, and which does it release?
It **uses up oxygen** and **releases carbon dioxide**.
How does respiration cause a measurable temperature rise?
Respiration **releases some energy as heat**, so in an insulated flask the temperature climbs — faster respiration gives a faster rise.
Why does respiring tissue lose mass over time?
Carbon leaves the organism as **carbon dioxide gas**, so its **dry mass falls**.
How would an inhibitor such as cyanide affect a respirometer reading?
It **slows or stops** respiration, so **less oxygen is used** and the coloured liquid moves **less** (or not at all).
Why do we measure respiration indirectly?
You can't watch a cell respire, but you **can** measure the gases, heat or mass it changes — so measuring one of these gives the rate.
Why must a respirometer experiment be a fair test?
So any change in the liquid is caused by **respiration alone** — the dead-seed control rules out temperature and pressure effects.
In terms of energy, what does photosynthesis do?
It **converts light energy into chemical energy** stored in glucose.
Define photosynthesis.
The process that **converts light energy into chemical energy** (stored in glucose), using carbon dioxide and water as raw materials.
What are the raw materials of photosynthesis?
**Carbon dioxide** and **water**.
What are the products of photosynthesis?
**Glucose** and **oxygen**.
Write the word equation for photosynthesis.
**carbon dioxide + water →(light, chlorophyll)→ glucose + oxygen**.
What is the role of chlorophyll?
It is the **green pigment** that **absorbs the light energy** used to drive photosynthesis.
Where is the chemical energy from photosynthesis stored?
In the **bonds of glucose**.
Is light a raw material of photosynthesis?
**No** — light is the **energy input**. It is absorbed and converted, but not built into the glucose.
Where does the oxygen released in photosynthesis come from?
From the **water** that is split during the process.
Why does a water plant bubble in the light but not the dark?
Photosynthesis needs **light energy**, so it only occurs in the light, releasing **oxygen** as bubbles.
Define chemical energy.
Energy **stored in the bonds of a molecule** (such as glucose); it can be released later by respiration.
Which gas is released as a waste product of photosynthesis?
**Oxygen (O₂)**.
Why do leaves look green?
**Chlorophyll reflects green light** (while absorbing blue and red). The reflected green is what we see.
Which colours of light does chlorophyll absorb most strongly?
**Blue** (~450 nm) and **red** (~660 nm).
Which colour does chlorophyll absorb least?
**Green** (~550 nm) — it is mostly reflected.
Define a pigment.
A **coloured molecule** that absorbs some wavelengths of light and reflects others; the colour you see is the light it does **not** absorb.
What is an absorption spectrum?
A graph of **how much light a pigment absorbs** at each wavelength (chlorophyll peaks in blue and red, dips in green).
What is an action spectrum?
A graph of the **rate of photosynthesis** at each wavelength of light.
Why do the absorption and action spectra have the same shape?
Because **only absorbed light can power photosynthesis** — the wavelengths absorbed are the wavelengths that drive it.
What are accessory pigments?
Extra pigments (e.g. **carotenoids**) that absorb wavelengths **chlorophyll misses** and pass the energy on to chlorophyll.
Why are accessory pigments useful?
They **widen the range of wavelengths** captured, so the plant loses less of the available light energy.
The colour you see from a pigment is...
The light the pigment **does NOT absorb** (the reflected light), not the light it absorbs.
What does chromatography of a leaf extract show?
That a leaf contains **more than one pigment** — they separate into different **colours** (different Rf values).
Roughly what wavelength range is visible light?
About **400 nm (blue/violet)** to **700 nm (red)**, with green near **550 nm**.
What are the two PRODUCTS of photosynthesis?
**Glucose** (chemical energy) and **oxygen** (a released waste gas).
Which gas does photosynthesis RELEASE?
**Oxygen (O₂)** — a waste product, given off from the splitting of water.
Which gas does photosynthesis ABSORB?
**Carbon dioxide (CO₂)** — a raw material whose carbon is built into glucose.
Where does the oxygen given off in photosynthesis come from?
From the **splitting of water** during the reaction.
Why does an illuminated aquatic plant give off bubbles?
The bubbles are **oxygen**, a product of photosynthesis released in the light.
Name three ways to measure the rate of photosynthesis.
**Oxygen produced** (bubble count / gas volume), **carbon dioxide taken up** (CO₂ indicator), and **pH** of the water.
What does a CO₂ (hydrogencarbonate) indicator show?
It changes **colour** with the dissolved carbon dioxide level — as the plant removes CO₂, the colour shifts.
Why does faster photosynthesis make the water's pH RISE?
It **removes carbon dioxide**; dissolved CO₂ is acidic, so less CO₂ means **less acid** and a **higher pH**.
How does counting bubbles measure the rate?
**More bubbles per minute** means **more oxygen** is being released, so photosynthesis is **faster**.
Define the rate of photosynthesis.
How **fast** photosynthesis is happening — e.g. how much **oxygen is produced** (or CO₂ used) each minute.
Does removing CO₂ from water make it more or less acidic?
**Less** acidic — dissolved CO₂ is acidic, so taking it out raises the pH.
How are the gas changes of photosynthesis different from respiration?
Photosynthesis **releases O₂ and absorbs CO₂**; respiration does the opposite (uses O₂, releases CO₂).
What is a limiting factor?
The factor in **shortest supply** that holds back the rate of a process. Only raising it can increase the rate.
Name the three limiting factors of photosynthesis.
**Light intensity**, **carbon dioxide concentration** and **temperature**.
Why does only the limiting factor change the rate?
Because it is the one in shortest supply; the others are already plentiful, so adding more of them does nothing.
On a rate-vs-light graph, what is limiting on the rising part?
**Light intensity** — while the curve climbs, increasing light increases the rate.
On a rate-vs-light graph, what is limiting on the plateau?
**CO₂ concentration** (or **temperature**) — light is no longer limiting once the rate goes flat.
Why does a rate-vs-light curve plateau?
Because **light is no longer the limiting factor**; another factor (CO₂ or temperature) now limits the rate.
On a graph with two CO₂ levels, what does the higher-CO₂ curve do?
It **plateaus higher up** — more CO₂ lets light keep raising the rate for longer.
How does increasing CO₂ affect the rate while CO₂ is limiting?
It **increases** the rate, because CO₂ is a raw material that was in short supply.
What happens to the rate if temperature rises too far above the optimum?
The rate **falls** (and can drop to zero) because the **enzymes denature**.
Why does very high temperature lower the rate of photosynthesis?
Photosynthesis uses **enzymes**, and high temperature **denatures** them, destroying their shape so they stop working.
How do you spot the limiting factor from a curve's shape?
If the curve is **sloping**, the factor on the axis is limiting; if it is **flat**, something else is limiting.
Define the 'rate of photosynthesis'.
How fast photosynthesis happens — e.g. the volume of oxygen released or CO₂ taken up per minute.
What is carbon fixation?
Taking **carbon dioxide (CO₂)** from the air and building its carbon into an **organic molecule** — in plants this happens during **photosynthesis**.
Where does all the carbon in a plant originally come from?
From **carbon dioxide (CO₂)** in the **atmosphere**, fixed during photosynthesis.
Which molecule does a plant build FIRST from fixed carbon?
**Glucose** — the hub molecule from which everything else is built.
Why is glucose called a 'hub' molecule?
Because the plant **converts** it into all its other molecules: starch, cellulose, amino acids and lipids.
List the main fates of the glucose a plant makes.
**Respiration** (energy), **starch** (storage), **cellulose** (cell walls), **amino acids / proteins**, and **lipids (oils)**.
How does a plant turn glucose into an oil?
Glucose is converted into **glycerol** and **fatty acids**, which are then **joined** (by condensation) to form a **lipid (oil)**.
What are the building blocks of a lipid (oil)?
**Glycerol** and **fatty acids**.
Outline how a plant builds oils from atmospheric carbon.
CO₂ is **fixed** in photosynthesis → **glucose** is made → glucose → **glycerol + fatty acids** → these **join** into a **lipid (oil)**, stored in seeds.
Which food molecule stores the most energy per gram?
**Lipids (oils)** — this is why seeds often store energy as oil rather than starch.
Where are plant oils most often stored?
In **seeds**, where their packed energy fuels the growth of the next plant.
Which extra element does a plant need to make proteins (but not oils)?
**Nitrogen (N)** — taken up from the soil, as well as the carbon from CO₂.
Is starch or oil made directly from glucose by joining glucose units?
**Starch** — it is built by joining glucose molecules; oils need glucose to be converted to glycerol and fatty acids first.
Which leaf layer carries out most of the photosynthesis?
The **palisade mesophyll** — tall cells packed with chloroplasts near the top of the leaf.
How do you identify the palisade mesophyll on a leaf cross-section?
Look for a layer of **tall, column-shaped cells packed with chloroplasts, just below the upper surface**.
What is the palisade mesophyll?
A layer of **tall, chloroplast-packed cells** just under the upper surface that does **most of the leaf's photosynthesis**.
What is the spongy mesophyll, and how does it help photosynthesis?
A layer of **loosely-packed cells with large air spaces**; the spaces let **CO₂ diffuse** to every photosynthesising cell.
Why are the waxy cuticle and upper epidermis transparent?
They have **no chloroplasts**, so they are clear and let **light pass through** to the palisade cells below.
Why is a leaf broad and flat?
To give a **large surface area** for absorbing light (and for gas exchange).
Why is a leaf thin?
So light and **CO₂ only travel a short distance** to reach the chloroplasts.
Where is the palisade mesophyll positioned, and why there?
**Near the top**, just below the upper epidermis — where the **light is brightest**, so it absorbs the most light.
What do the veins (xylem and phloem) do for photosynthesis?
**Xylem** brings **water** (a raw material); **phloem** carries away the **sugars** made.
Which three raw materials/conditions does a leaf supply for photosynthesis?
**Light** (captured by the broad, transparent-topped leaf), **CO₂** (in through stomata) and **water** (up the xylem).
How can you tell the palisade mesophyll from the spongy mesophyll?
**Palisade** = tall, packed cells near the **top**; **spongy** = loose, rounded cells with **air spaces lower down**.
What lets CO₂ enter the leaf to reach the chloroplasts?
The **stomata** (pores controlled by **guard cells**), mainly on the lower surface.
What is a ligand?
A **signalling molecule that binds to a receptor** to deliver a message.
What is a receptor?
A **protein** with a **binding site** complementary to a specific ligand; binding the ligand triggers a response.
What makes a receptor specific to one ligand?
Its binding site is **complementary in shape AND chemistry** to that ligand (lock-and-key), so only the matching ligand fits.
What is a target cell?
A cell that **carries the matching receptor** for a signal — so it is the cell that actually responds.
Why do only some cells respond to a signal that reaches them all?
Only cells with the **matching receptor** can **bind** the ligand and respond; cells without it cannot.
Why can the same signal cause different responses in different cells?
The response depends on **each cell's own receptor and machinery**, not on the signal itself.
Is ligand–receptor binding permanent?
No — it is **reversible**, so the response is **temporary** and can be switched off.
Name the four modes of chemical signalling, by distance.
**Endocrine** (hormone via blood, long range), **paracrine** (local/nearby cells), **autocrine** (a cell signals itself) and **neurotransmitter** (across a synapse).
What is endocrine signalling?
A **hormone** is released into the **blood** and carried to **distant** target cells — the longest-range mode.
Why does a peptide hormone bind a SURFACE receptor?
It is **hydrophilic (water-soluble)**, so it **cannot cross** the phospholipid membrane — its receptor must be on the cell surface, and the signal is then **transduced** inside.
Why can a steroid hormone bind an INTRACELLULAR receptor?
It is **lipid-soluble**, so it **diffuses straight through** the membrane and binds a receptor **inside** the cell.
How does a steroid hormone change the cell's behaviour?
The **hormone–receptor complex acts in the nucleus**, switching **genes on/off** so different proteins are made.
Peptide vs steroid — which is faster and why?
**Peptide** is faster (seconds–minutes) because it activates existing machinery; **steroid** is slower (hours) because new proteins must be made — but it lasts longer.
Is adrenaline a peptide or a steroid in how it acts?
It acts like a **peptide** — it is **hydrophilic**, so it binds a **surface receptor** and works by **signal transduction** (not via intracellular gene action).
Why can't a hydrophilic ligand cross the cell membrane?
It is repelled by the **hydrophobic core** of the phospholipid bilayer, so it can't pass through — it must bind a **surface** receptor.
What kind of receptor does a hydrophilic ligand bind?
A **transmembrane receptor** (e.g. a **G-protein-coupled receptor, GPCR**) — a protein spanning the membrane with a binding site outside and an end inside.
What is signal transduction?
**Relaying** a signal received at the cell surface into a **response inside** the cell, without the ligand entering.
What is a second messenger? Give an example.
A small molecule made **inside** the cell that carries the signal onward and amplifies it — e.g. **cyclic AMP (cAMP)**.
How does the pathway amplify the signal?
**One** ligand → **many** cAMP molecules → a **cascade** where each enzyme activates many more → a **large** response.
What is the final 'response' in this pathway?
An **enzyme is switched on**, or a **gene is switched on**, inside the cell.
Ligand vs second messenger — what's the difference?
The **ligand** (first messenger) stays **outside** and binds the receptor; the **second messenger** (cAMP) is made **inside** and relays the signal onward.
Which signals use intracellular receptors?
**Lipid-soluble** signals — **steroid hormones** and **thyroxine** — because they can diffuse through the plasma membrane.
Where are intracellular receptors located?
**Inside** the cell — in the **cytoplasm or nucleus** (not on the surface).
How does a lipid-soluble hormone get inside the cell?
It **diffuses straight through the plasma membrane** (the membrane is lipid, and like dissolves like).
What does the hormone-receptor complex act as?
A **transcription factor** — it **binds DNA** and **switches specific genes on or off**.
What is the final effect of intracellular signalling?
It **changes which proteins the cell makes** (gene expression) — a **slower but longer-lasting** effect.
Intracellular vs surface receptors — speed and duration?
Intracellular = **slow to start, long-lasting** (changes gene expression); surface + second messenger = **fast, short-lived**.
Does a steroid hormone use a second messenger?
**No** — second messengers belong to the **surface-receptor** route; a steroid acts directly on the cell's DNA.
What is a neurotransmitter, and where does it act?
A **chemical signal** released at a **synapse**; it diffuses across the cleft and **binds receptors** on the postsynaptic membrane.
What actually triggers the response at a synapse?
The neurotransmitter **binding its receptor** on the postsynaptic membrane — a neurotransmitter in the cleft does nothing until it binds.
What makes a response excitatory?
The receptor opens channels that let **positive ions (Na⁺) in** → the membrane **depolarises** → the neuron is **more likely to fire**.
What makes a response inhibitory?
The receptor opens channels that let **Cl⁻ in (or K⁺ out)** → the membrane **hyperpolarises** → the neuron is **less likely to fire**.
How can one neurotransmitter excite one cell and inhibit another?
The **receptor decides**, not the neurotransmitter — different receptors open different ion channels, so the same signal gives opposite effects.
How is a synaptic signal switched off, and why?
The neurotransmitter is **removed (re-uptake)** or **broken down by an enzyme**, so the receptors empty and the signal stops — keeping it **brief and controlled**.
How does negative feedback control chemical signalling?
A **rising response inhibits further signalling**, so the response stops growing and the system **returns to its set point**.
What is a neuron?
A **nerve cell** — the cell specialised to carry **electrical impulses** around the body.
In what order does a nerve impulse travel through a neuron?
**Dendrites → cell body → axon → axon terminals** (always one direction).
What is the job of the dendrites?
They **receive incoming signals** and carry them towards the cell body.
What does the axon do?
It carries the **nerve impulse away from the cell body** towards the axon terminals.
What does the myelin sheath do?
It is a **fatty layer** that **insulates the axon** and **speeds up** the nerve impulse.
What are the nodes of Ranvier?
The **gaps between segments of the myelin sheath**, where the impulse 'jumps' so it travels faster.
What is the function of a sensory neuron?
It carries impulses **from receptors TOWARDS the CNS** (it brings information in from the senses).
What is the function of a motor neuron?
It carries impulses **from the CNS TO effectors** (muscles and glands), producing a response.
What is the simplest way to tell sensory and motor neurons apart?
By **direction**: sensory carry impulses **TO** the CNS, motor carry impulses **FROM** the CNS.
What is an effector?
A **muscle or gland** that carries out a response (by contracting or by releasing a secretion).
What are the two components of the central nervous system (CNS)?
The **brain** and the **spinal cord**.
What is the peripheral nervous system (PNS)?
**All the nerves outside the brain and spinal cord**, connecting the CNS to the rest of the body.
What is the resting potential of a neuron?
The voltage across the membrane of a neuron that is **not** conducting an impulse — the inside is about **−70 mV** (negative) relative to the outside.
Roughly what value is the resting potential?
About **−70 mV** (the inside is negative relative to the outside).
Is the inside of a resting neuron positive or negative?
**Negative** — about −70 mV compared with the outside.
What is the sodium-potassium pump?
A membrane protein that uses **ATP** to move **Na⁺ out** of the neuron and **K⁺ in**, against their concentration gradients.
How many of each ion does the pump move per cycle?
**3 sodium ions (Na⁺) out** and **2 potassium ions (K⁺) in**.
Why does the inside of the neuron become negative?
The pump moves **3 positive ions out for every 2 in**, so more positive charge leaves than enters; **K⁺ leaking back out** makes it more negative still.
Why does the sodium-potassium pump need ATP?
It moves ions **against their concentration gradients** — this is **active transport**, which requires energy from ATP.
Where does the ATP for the pump come from?
From **cell respiration** (in the neuron's mitochondria).
What is active transport?
Movement of a substance across a membrane **against** its concentration gradient, requiring energy from **ATP**.
What happens to the resting potential if a neuron cannot respire?
It is **lost** — no respiration → no ATP → the pump stops → the ion gradients run down.
What does potassium do after the pump builds it up inside?
Some **K⁺ leaks back out** down its concentration gradient, making the inside **more negative**.
In a resting axon, where is sodium more concentrated?
**Outside** the axon (the pump keeps Na⁺ high outside and low inside).
In a resting axon, where is potassium more concentrated?
**Inside** the axon (the pump keeps K⁺ high inside and low outside).
What is the resting potential of a neuron?
About **−70 mV**, with the inside of the axon **negative** compared with the outside.
Define an action potential.
A rapid, temporary **reversal of the membrane potential** (from about −70 mV up to +40 mV and back) that travels along the axon as a nerve impulse.
What happens during depolarisation?
Voltage-gated **Na⁺ channels open** and **Na⁺ ions rush IN**, so the inside becomes positive and the membrane potential rises to about +40 mV.
What happens during repolarisation?
**K⁺ channels open** and **K⁺ ions move OUT**, so the inside becomes negative again and the membrane potential falls back towards −70 mV.
Which ion drives depolarisation, and in which direction?
**Sodium (Na⁺)**, moving **INTO** the axon.
Which ion drives repolarisation, and in which direction?
**Potassium (K⁺)**, moving **OUT of** the axon.
What is the threshold?
The membrane potential a stimulus must reach to trigger an action potential. Below it nothing fires; at or above it a full action potential fires.
What does the all-or-none principle mean?
An action potential fires **fully or not at all** — every one is the **same size**, regardless of how strong the stimulus is.
How does a stronger stimulus affect the response of a neuron?
It makes the neuron fire action potentials **more frequently** — it does **not** make each action potential bigger.
How does an action potential travel along an axon?
Each region **depolarises the next region**, regenerating the impulse so it stays the **same size** all the way along.
Why does a nerve impulse travel in only one direction?
The region just behind the impulse is briefly **recovering (refractory)** and cannot fire again straight away, so the impulse moves forward only.
On an action-potential trace, what does the rising part show?
**Depolarisation** — Na⁺ ions entering the axon (membrane potential rising towards +40 mV).
On an action-potential trace, what does the falling part show?
**Repolarisation** — K⁺ ions leaving the axon (membrane potential falling towards −70 mV).
What restores the resting potential after an action potential?
The **Na⁺/K⁺ pump**, which pumps Na⁺ out and K⁺ in to re-establish the resting ion balance.
What three factors mainly determine the speed of a nerve impulse?
**Myelination**, **saltatory conduction** (nodes of Ranvier), and **axon diameter**.
What is the myelin sheath?
A **fatty insulating layer** that wraps around the axon of some neurons.
What is a node of Ranvier?
A **gap in the myelin sheath** where the axon membrane is exposed and the action potential is regenerated.
What is saltatory conduction?
Conduction in which the impulse **'jumps' from one node of Ranvier to the next**, instead of moving continuously along the membrane.
Why does myelination speed up conduction?
The myelin **insulates** the axon, so the impulse only forms at the nodes and **jumps** between them — much faster than continuous conduction.
Where does depolarization occur on a myelinated axon?
**Only at the nodes of Ranvier** — the gaps in the myelin; the sheath insulates the rest of the axon.
How does axon diameter affect conduction speed?
A **wider** axon conducts **faster** because it has **less internal resistance** to the flow of charge.
Which conducts faster: a myelinated or an unmyelinated axon?
A **myelinated** axon — it uses fast saltatory conduction; an unmyelinated axon conducts slowly and continuously.
Of four axons, which conducts a nerve impulse most slowly?
The **thin, unmyelinated** one — no saltatory conduction and high internal resistance.
Of four axons, which conducts a nerve impulse fastest?
The **wide, myelinated** one — saltatory conduction plus low internal resistance.
What does the word 'saltatory' mean, and why is it apt?
It comes from the Latin for **'to jump'** — the impulse leaps from node to node.
Why is a myelinated axon described as 'insulated'?
The fatty myelin sheath acts like the plastic coating on a wire, **insulating** the axon so the impulse only forms at the bare nodes.
What is a synapse?
The **junction (gap)** between two neurons, where a signal passes from one to the next using a **chemical** (neurotransmitter).
What is the synaptic cleft?
The **narrow gap** between the two neurons that the neurotransmitter **diffuses across**.
What is a neurotransmitter?
The **chemical messenger** released into the synaptic cleft that carries the signal across the gap.
What is stored in synaptic vesicles?
**Neurotransmitter** — ready to be released from the presynaptic neuron.
Why is the signal carried by a chemical at a synapse, not electricity?
The two neurons are separated by the cleft; electricity cannot cross the gap, so a **neurotransmitter** bridges it.
What triggers vesicles to fuse with the presynaptic membrane?
**Calcium ions (Ca²⁺) entering** the presynaptic neuron when the impulse arrives.
How is neurotransmitter released into the cleft?
By **exocytosis** — vesicles fuse with the presynaptic membrane and empty their contents into the cleft.
Describe the release of neurotransmitter (3 steps).
**Ca²⁺ enters** → **vesicles fuse** with the presynaptic membrane → neurotransmitter **released by exocytosis** into the cleft.
What happens when neurotransmitter binds the postsynaptic receptors?
**Ion channels open**, **Na⁺ enters**, and the postsynaptic membrane **depolarises** (an EPSP).
What is an excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP)?
A **depolarisation** of the postsynaptic membrane caused by neurotransmitter binding — it makes a new impulse **more likely**.
Distinguish the presynaptic from the postsynaptic membrane.
**Presynaptic** = holds vesicles and **releases** neurotransmitter; **postsynaptic** = carries receptors and **receives** it.
Why is it an advantage that the synaptic cleft is narrow?
It gives a **short diffusion distance**, so the neurotransmitter crosses **quickly** and transmission is **fast**.
Which ion enters the POSTsynaptic neuron to depolarise it?
**Sodium (Na⁺)** — it enters through channels opened by the neurotransmitter.
What is a reflex?
A **fast, automatic response** to a stimulus that needs **no conscious thought**.
What is a reflex arc?
The fixed nerve pathway a reflex follows: **stimulus -> receptor -> sensory neuron -> relay neuron (CNS) -> motor neuron -> effector -> response**.
Why are reflexes so fast?
The signal takes a **short cut through the spinal cord** instead of travelling to the brain and back.
What does a receptor do in a reflex arc?
It **detects the stimulus** and starts a nerve impulse (e.g. a sensory nerve ending in the skin).
What is the effector in a reflex arc?
A **muscle or gland** that carries out the response (e.g. a muscle that contracts).
In a pain reflex, what is the receptor?
A **sensory nerve ending** in the skin.
In a pain reflex, what is the effector?
A **muscle** that contracts to pull the body part away.
Where are the synapses in a reflex arc located?
**Inside the CNS** — in the grey matter of the **spinal cord**.
Which neuron carries the impulse INTO the CNS?
The **sensory neuron** (S = sending in).
Which neuron carries the impulse OUT of the CNS?
The **motor neuron** (M = moving out).
What does a mechanoreceptor detect?
**Touch, pressure, texture, stretch or vibration.**
What does a thermoreceptor detect?
**Temperature** (heat and cold).
What does a chemoreceptor detect?
**Chemicals** — this is how **taste and smell** work.
What does a photoreceptor detect?
**Light** (e.g. the brightness of light entering the eye).
In the pupil reflex, what is the effector and what does it do?
The **iris muscles** — they **contract to make the pupil smaller**, reducing the light entering the eye.
What signal does the nervous system use?
Fast **electrical impulses** carried along **neurons**.
What signal does the endocrine system use?
Slower **chemical hormones** carried in the **blood**.
Define a hormone.
A **chemical messenger** released by an endocrine gland into the **blood**; it travels to **target cells** and changes how they behave.
Define an endocrine gland.
An organ that makes and releases a **hormone** directly into the **blood** (e.g. pancreas, adrenal gland, thyroid, testis).
What is a target cell?
A cell with the **matching receptor** for a hormone — only target cells respond to that hormone.
Contrast nervous and endocrine responses for speed and duration.
**Nervous** = fast and short-lived; **endocrine** = slower and longer-lasting.
How are the nervous and endocrine systems linked in the brain?
The **hypothalamus** signals the **pituitary gland**, which controls other endocrine glands — so the nervous system can drive the endocrine system.
What carries signals from the CNS to an endocrine gland?
**Neurons (nerves)** of the nervous system, often via the **hypothalamus and pituitary**.
State one effect of insulin.
It **lowers blood glucose** (body cells take up glucose). Insulin is released by the **pancreas**.
State one effect of epinephrine (adrenaline).
It **raises heart rate** (and breathing rate) for 'fight-or-flight'. It is released by the **adrenal gland**.
State one effect of testosterone.
It **drives male sexual development** (e.g. sperm production, body changes at puberty). It is released by the **testis**.
What is negative feedback?
A control loop where the **response opposes the change**, returning a level to its **set point** and keeping the body stable.
Why does the body need TWO signalling systems?
The **nervous** system handles **quick** reactions; the **endocrine** system handles **sustained** changes. Together they cover both.
What does it mean that the heart is 'myogenic'?
The heartbeat **starts within the heart muscle itself** (at the SA node), not from a signal sent by the brain.
What is the SA node and where is it?
The **sinoatrial (SA) node** — a patch of special muscle in the **wall of the right atrium**. It is the heart's natural **pacemaker** and starts every beat.
What is a pacemaker (in the heart)?
The structure that **sets the rhythm** of the heartbeat. In a healthy heart this is the **SA node**.
What is the role of the AV node?
The **atrioventricular (AV) node** **delays** the impulse between the atria and ventricles, so the **atria empty before the ventricles contract**.
In what order does a heartbeat happen?
**SA node fires → atria contract → AV node delays → ventricles contract.**
Why does the AV node delay the impulse?
So the **atria can finish emptying** their blood into the ventricles **before** the ventricles contract — keeping the beat coordinated.
Which cardiac-muscle feature aids conduction of the impulse?
**Intercalated discs** containing **gap junctions**, which let the impulse pass **directly from cell to cell**.
How does the nervous system change heart rate?
Nerves from the brain's **medulla** reach the SA node — one **speeds it up**, one **slows it down**.
Which hormone raises heart rate, and how?
**Adrenaline** — it reaches the SA node and **speeds it up**. It always raises heart rate.
What 'always raises heart rate'?
**Adrenaline** — it speeds up the SA node and never slows it down.
What is an artificial pacemaker for?
An implanted device that sends **regular electrical impulses** to keep a normal rhythm when the **SA node is faulty**.
On an ECG-style trace, what is the heart doing during the T wave?
The **ventricles are relaxing / recovering** (repolarising) after contracting.
What is digestion?
The **breakdown of large food molecules** into small, soluble ones that can be absorbed.
What is absorption (in the gut)?
The movement of the **small, soluble products of digestion** out of the gut and into the **blood** (or lymph).
What is peristalsis?
**Waves of muscle contraction** in the gut wall that **push food along** the digestive tract.
What type of muscle produces peristalsis, and is it conscious?
**Involuntary smooth muscle** — it is **not** under conscious control.
What controls peristalsis?
The **autonomic nervous system** — the nerves in the gut wall (the **enteric nervous system**).
Which acid does the stomach secrete, and what is its pH?
**Hydrochloric acid (HCl)** — giving a very **low pH** (about 1.5–2).
Give two reasons the stomach keeps a low pH.
(1) It **kills most ingested bacteria**; (2) it gives the enzyme **pepsin** its **optimum (acidic) pH**.
How does stomach acid help digest protein?
It **denatures** (unfolds) proteins and provides the acidic pH that lets **pepsin** (a protease) break them into shorter chains.
Name a class of drugs that lowers stomach acid secretion.
**Proton-pump inhibitors** (antacids neutralise acid that is already there).
Name three enzymes secreted by the exocrine pancreas.
**Amylase** (starch), **protease** (protein) and **lipase** (fat).
Match each food to its absorbable products.
Starch → **glucose**; protein → **amino acids**; triglyceride (fat) → **fatty acids and glycerol**.
List three adaptations of the small intestine for absorption.
**Villi** (large surface area), a **thin (one-cell) wall** (short diffusion distance), and a **rich blood supply** (steep concentration gradient).
What is the main role of the large intestine?
To **reabsorb water** (and mineral ions) and form faeces — it does no enzyme digestion.
In a dialysis-tubing model, why does glucose pass through the membrane but starch does not?
**Glucose is small** enough to cross the partially permeable membrane; **starch is too large** — it must be digested first. This models absorption in the gut.
What is the liver's general role with blood nutrients?
It processes the nutrient-rich blood from the gut, adjusting, storing and removing nutrients to keep the blood's composition **steady**.
What is a hepatocyte?
A **liver cell** — the cell type that carries out the liver's chemical jobs, including regulating blood nutrients.
What is glycogen?
A **storage carbohydrate** (a polymer of glucose) made by the liver when blood glucose is high and broken down when it is low.
How does the liver respond when blood glucose is HIGH?
It **takes up glucose and stores it as glycogen** (triggered by insulin), so blood glucose falls back to normal.
How does the liver respond when blood glucose is LOW?
It **breaks glycogen back into glucose** and releases it (triggered by glucagon), so blood glucose rises back to normal.
Which hormone tells the liver to store glucose, and which tells it to release glucose?
**Insulin** → store as glycogen (high glucose); **glucagon** → release glucose from glycogen (low glucose).
Why is blood glucose control called negative feedback?
Because the liver's response always **opposes** the change — a rise triggers storage, a fall triggers release — returning glucose toward its set point.
How does the body remove excess cholesterol?
The liver removes it from the blood and releases it into **bile**; the cholesterol is then lost from the body in the **faeces**.
Name three jobs of the liver besides regulating glucose.
Removing excess **cholesterol** (into bile), **detoxifying** substances like alcohol, and breaking down old **red blood cells**.
What is bilirubin, and where does it come from?
A yellow **pigment** produced when the liver breaks down old **red blood cells**; it is passed into bile.
What causes jaundice?
Bilirubin **is not cleared** by a damaged liver, so it **builds up** in the blood and colours the skin and the whites of the eyes **yellow**.
Why does excess alcohol harm the liver's functions?
Alcohol is **detoxified by hepatocytes**; an excess **damages and scars** them, so the liver regulates glucose, cholesterol and other substances less effectively.
Which gas does the body monitor to control breathing rate?
**Carbon dioxide (CO₂)** — not oxygen. A rise in CO₂ is the main signal that speeds up breathing.
Define ventilation rate.
The **number of breaths taken per minute** (together with how deep each breath is).
What is a chemoreceptor?
A **sensor that detects a chemical change** — here, a rise in blood CO₂ (and the fall in pH it causes).
Where are the chemoreceptors that monitor blood CO₂?
In the **medulla** of the brain and in the walls of the **aorta and carotid arteries**.
What is the control centre for breathing, and what does it do?
The **medulla** (in the brainstem) — it sends nerve impulses to the breathing muscles to set the ventilation rate.
Which muscles act as the effectors that change breathing?
The **diaphragm and intercostal muscles** — they make breathing faster and deeper.
How does a rise in blood CO₂ affect ventilation rate?
Ventilation rate **increases** — chemoreceptors detect the rise and the medulla speeds up breathing to exhale the extra CO₂.
How does faster breathing bring blood CO₂ back to normal?
Faster, deeper breathing **exhales more CO₂**, so blood CO₂ (and pH) fall back to the normal level.
Why is the control of ventilation an example of negative feedback?
The response (faster breathing, which removes CO₂) **opposes** the change (rising CO₂), returning CO₂ to its set point.
What happens to breathing when blood CO₂ falls below normal?
Chemoreceptors are stimulated **less**, the medulla **slows breathing down**, so less CO₂ is exhaled and CO₂ rises back to normal.
How does rising CO₂ affect blood pH?
It **lowers** blood pH (makes the blood more acidic), because dissolved CO₂ forms acid.
On a graph of CO₂ against ventilation rate, what is the trend?
As CO₂ **increases**, ventilation rate **increases** — a positive correlation.
What is an essential nutrient?
A nutrient the body **cannot make** for itself, so it **must come from the diet** (e.g. vitamin C, vitamin D).
What is a balanced diet?
A diet containing **all the nutrient groups in the correct proportions** to meet the body's needs.
What is malnutrition?
Poor health from a diet with **too little, too much, or the wrong balance** of nutrients (under- OR over-nutrition).
State one role of vitamin C (ascorbic acid).
It is needed to make strong **collagen** for skin, gums and blood-vessel walls.
What deficiency disease results from a lack of vitamin C?
**Scurvy** — weak connective tissue, bleeding gums and slow wound healing.
What is the role of vitamin D?
It is needed to **absorb calcium** from food into the blood.
Why does a lack of vitamin D cause abnormal bones?
Less calcium is absorbed → too little calcium for bone → bones are **not hardened properly** → soft, deformed bones (**rickets**).
Outline the chain from a high-fat diet to coronary heart disease.
Saturated fat → raises **cholesterol** → **plaques** in arteries (atherosclerosis) → coronary arteries **narrow** → less **oxygen** to heart muscle → **CHD / heart attack**.
What is atherosclerosis?
The build-up of **fatty plaques** in artery walls, which **narrows** the arteries.
Why is obesity a health risk?
It raises blood pressure (**hypertension**) and is linked to **type-2 diabetes** and **coronary heart disease**.
Why is a large bag of potato chips a nutritional concern?
It is **high in fat, salt and energy** but low in vitamins, minerals and fibre — contributing to obesity and high blood pressure.
Name the two opposite forms of malnutrition.
**Under-nutrition** (too little → deficiency diseases) and **over-nutrition** (too much → obesity, CHD).
What is a pathogen?
An **organism or particle that causes disease** — a bacterium, virus, fungus or protist.
Name the four main types of pathogen.
**Bacteria, viruses, fungi and protists.**
What are the two main ways a pathogen harms the body?
By **damaging the cells** it infects, and by releasing **toxins** that disrupt how cells work.
What is a primary (first-line) defence?
A barrier that **stops pathogens entering** the body in the first place — the skin, mucous membranes and stomach acid.
Name the three primary defences.
The **skin**, the **mucous membranes** (mucus + cilia) and **stomach acid**.
How does the skin defend the body?
It is a tough, dry **physical barrier** of dead cells that pathogens cannot easily cross while it is unbroken.
How do mucous membranes defend the body?
They make sticky **mucus** that **traps** pathogens; in the airways, **cilia** then sweep the mucus away.
How does stomach acid defend the body?
Its strong acid (very **low pH**) **kills most pathogens** that are swallowed in food or mucus — a **chemical** barrier.
Which primary defence is chemical, not physical?
**Stomach acid** — it chemically kills pathogens. Skin and mucus are physical barriers.
Why are primary defences described as non-specific?
They work against **any pathogen**, not just one particular kind.
Why is a cut or wound dangerous?
It **breaks the skin barrier**, giving pathogens a direct way into the body.
Why might less stomach acid increase the risk of gut infection?
Less acid **kills fewer swallowed pathogens**, so more survive, reach the gut and cause infection.
How can severe watery diarrhoea cause death?
Through **dehydration** — a large loss of water (and salts) from the body, which can be fatal.
What is a blood clot?
A plug of trapped blood cells held together by a mesh of **fibrin** fibres, which seals a damaged blood vessel.
What two jobs does a blood clot do?
It **stops blood loss** AND acts as a **barrier that keeps pathogens out** of the wound.
What causes a blood clot to form?
A **cut / damaged blood vessel** — its exposed surface activates platelets, which start the cascade.
What is the role of platelets in clotting?
They **stick** to the wound, **clump** together and **release clotting factors** that start the cascade.
What are clotting factors?
Chemicals released at a wound that **switch on** the cascade of reactions leading to a clot.
Which enzyme converts fibrinogen into fibrin?
**Thrombin** — it turns soluble fibrinogen into insoluble fibrin.
What is the difference between fibrinogen and fibrin?
**Fibrinogen** is **soluble** (dissolved in plasma); **fibrin** is **insoluble** and forms the fibre mesh of the clot.
What happens to prothrombin during clotting?
Clotting factors convert inactive **prothrombin** into the active enzyme **thrombin**.
What does the fibrin mesh do?
It **traps platelets and red blood cells**, forming the clot that dries into a **scab**.
Put the clotting cascade in order.
Cut vessel → platelets stick / release clotting factors → thrombin formed → fibrinogen → fibrin mesh → clot / scab.
Why does clotting only happen at a wound?
It is triggered by a **damaged vessel surface**; clots in healthy vessels could block blood flow, so 'no damage → no clot'.
How does a clot help prevent infection?
The clot / scab **seals the cut**, forming a **physical barrier** so pathogens cannot enter the tissues.
What are the three key features of the innate immune system?
It is **fast**, **non-specific**, and has **no memory**.
Which type of leucocyte carries out the innate response?
**Phagocytes** — for example **macrophages** and **neutrophils**.
Define a phagocyte.
A type of white blood cell (leucocyte) that **engulfs and digests pathogens** by phagocytosis.
Define phagocytosis.
The process in which a phagocyte **engulfs a pathogen, encloses it in a vacuole, and digests it with enzymes**.
List the steps of phagocytosis in order.
**Recognise** the pathogen → **engulf** it → **enclose** it in a vacuole → **digest** it with enzymes.
What does 'non-specific' mean for the innate system?
It acts against **any pathogen** in the same way, rather than targeting just one type.
What is a vacuole's role in phagocytosis?
It is the **membrane-bound 'bubble'** that holds the engulfed pathogen while enzymes break it down.
What destroys the pathogen inside the phagocyte?
**Enzymes** released into the vacuole, which break the pathogen down.
How does the innate system differ from the adaptive system?
Innate = **fast, non-specific, no memory** (phagocytes). Adaptive = **slow, specific, has memory** (lymphocytes).
Are lymphocytes (B-cells and T-cells) part of the innate system?
**No** — they are part of the **adaptive** system. The innate cells are the phagocytes.
Which cell count rises FIRST during an infection, and why?
The **phagocyte** count rises first, because the innate response is the **fast** one; lymphocytes rise later.
Why can phagocytes respond almost immediately to a new pathogen?
Because they are **non-specific** — they do not need to 'learn' the pathogen first, so they act straight away.
What does 'specific' (adaptive) immunity mean?
Immunity that targets **one particular pathogen**, recognised by its **antigen** — unlike the non-specific skin and phagocytes.
Define an antigen.
A molecule (usually on a pathogen's surface) that the immune system **recognises as foreign** and responds to.
Which white blood cells carry out the adaptive response?
**Lymphocytes** — mainly **B-cells** and **T-cells**.
What is the main function of a helper T-cell?
To **activate other immune cells**, especially the **B-cells** — it does **not** make antibodies itself.
Which cells actually make antibodies?
**B-cells** (which become **plasma cells**) once they have been activated.
What event triggers antibody production?
A **lymphocyte detecting the antigen** of an invading pathogen.
Describe the shape of an antibody and what its tips do.
An antibody is a **Y-shaped protein**; the **tips of its arms** are **antigen-binding sites** (the variable region) that fit one antigen.
Why does one antibody bind only one pathogen?
Its binding sites are a **specific shape, complementary to one antigen** — like a key that fits only one lock.
What is a memory cell?
A **long-lived lymphocyte** kept after an infection, giving a **faster, stronger** response if the same pathogen returns.
Why is the secondary response faster and larger than the primary?
**Memory cells** from the first exposure recognise the antigen **immediately**, so antibodies are made **faster and in greater amounts**.
Compare the primary and secondary response on a graph.
Primary: a **slow, late, low** curve. Secondary: a **fast, early, much higher** curve.
If a person's blood shows no antibodies before vaccination, what can you conclude?
They have had **no prior exposure** to that antigen — no previous infection or vaccination against it.
Which defences are non-specific (innate)?
The **skin** barrier and **phagocytes** (phagocytosis) — they attack any pathogen the same way, with no memory.
What does HIV stand for, and what does it destroy?
**Human Immunodeficiency Virus** — it infects and destroys **helper T-cells**.
What is the difference between HIV and AIDS?
**HIV** is the virus; **AIDS** is the late stage of infection, when helper T-cell numbers are so low the immune system collapses.
Why is destroying helper T-cells so damaging?
Helper T-cells **activate other immune cells** (including B-cells that make antibodies), so losing them cripples the whole immune response.
What are 'opportunistic infections'?
Infections that take hold because the immune system is too weak to stop them — a hallmark of **AIDS**.
What usually causes death in someone with AIDS?
**Opportunistic infections and cancers** that a healthy immune system would normally prevent — not the virus directly.
Define an antigen.
A molecule (often on a pathogen's surface) that the immune system **recognises as foreign** and responds to.
Define an antibody.
A **Y-shaped protein** that binds to **one specific antigen**, marking the pathogen for destruction.
What is a vaccine?
A **harmless** preparation of a pathogen's antigens that triggers **immunity (memory)** without causing the disease.
Outline how a vaccine produces immunity.
Harmless **antigen** → **primary response** (antibodies) → **memory cells** form → faster, larger **secondary response** on real infection.
What is immunological memory?
The ability of the immune system to respond **faster and more strongly** the second time it meets the same antigen, thanks to **memory cells**.
Why is the secondary response faster and larger than the first?
**Memory cells** from the first exposure are already present, so antibodies are made **quickly and in greater numbers**.
How can a falling helper T-cell graph explain worsening symptoms?
As the **count drops** over years, the immune response weakens, so the patient suffers more **opportunistic infections** — progressing to **AIDS**.
Why is there still no simple vaccine for HIV?
HIV destroys the very **helper T-cells** a vaccine relies on to build immune memory.
What is an antibiotic?
A medicine that **kills bacteria** (or stops them growing) by attacking a structure or process **only bacteria have**.
Name a target that antibiotics attack in bacteria.
The **cell wall** (its building), or bacterial **ribosomes** / **enzymes** — structures unique to bacterial cells.
Why can't antibiotics treat a virus such as influenza?
A **virus is not a cell** — it has no cell wall, no ribosomes and no metabolism of its own, so there is **no bacterial target** for the antibiotic to attack.
Why do antibiotics harm bacteria but not human cells?
They attack targets **unique to bacteria** (e.g. cell-wall building, bacterial ribosomes) that human cells do not have.
Define antibiotic resistance.
The ability of some **bacteria to survive** an antibiotic that would normally kill them.
How does antibiotic resistance evolve?
By **natural selection**: a few bacteria are already resistant → the antibiotic kills the non-resistant ones → the **resistant survivors reproduce** → the strain becomes common.
Do individual bacteria 'learn' to resist an antibiotic?
**No** — resistance comes from existing **variation** (often a mutation) and is **selected** by the antibiotic; it is not learned during a bacterium's life.
Why might the same antibiotic fail against a second infection?
A **resistant strain** has been selected — the resistant bacteria survived the first time and reproduced, so the drug no longer kills them.
In an experiment, why might bacterial colonies grow despite an antibiotic?
Those colonies are a **resistant strain** that can survive the antibiotic.
Define a zoonosis.
An infectious disease that can be transmitted **directly from an animal to a human**.
Give three examples of zoonoses.
**Rabies** (from a bite), some forms of **tuberculosis** (from cattle) and **Japanese encephalitis** (animal reservoir in pigs/birds).
What do rabies, TB and Japanese encephalitis have in common?
They are all **zoonoses** — they can pass from an **animal to a human**.
Define a population.
All the individuals of the **same species** living in the **same area at the same time**.
Define a community.
All the populations of **different species** living together and **interacting** in the same area.
Define a habitat.
The **place** (the type of environment) where a species or community normally lives.
Define an ecosystem.
A **community** of organisms together with the **abiotic (non-living) environment** it interacts with.
Define species richness.
The **number of different species** present in a community (a simple count, ignoring how many of each).
What is the nesting order of the ecological levels?
**Population → community → ecosystem** — one species, then many populations, then community plus its environment.
What is the key difference between a community and an ecosystem?
A community is the **living organisms only**; an ecosystem **also includes the abiotic (non-living) environment**.
How are the individuals in a community related?
Their populations **interact and depend on one another** — through feeding relationships, competition and other interactions.
What two basic types of organism make up a community?
**Autotrophs (producers)** that make their own food, and **heterotrophs (consumers and decomposers)** that take in food made by others.
What is an autotroph?
An organism that **makes its own food**, usually by **photosynthesis** (a producer, e.g. grass or algae).
What is a heterotroph?
An organism that **takes in food made by other organisms** (a consumer or decomposer, e.g. a rabbit, fox or fungus).
On a diagram, what does an oval enclosing autotrophs, heterotrophs AND the abiotic environment represent?
An **ecosystem** — because it includes the non-living environment as well as the living organisms.
Does a community include abiotic (non-living) factors?
**No** — a community is living organisms only. Adding the abiotic environment makes it an **ecosystem**.
How is species richness different from abundance?
**Species richness** counts how many **different species** there are; **abundance** counts how many **individuals** of a species there are.
What is an abiotic factor?
A **non-living**, physical or chemical feature of the environment (e.g. temperature, light, water, pH, salinity).
What is a biotic factor?
A **living** feature — an interaction with other organisms (e.g. food, competition, predation, disease).
Give three examples of abiotic factors.
Any of: **temperature, light intensity, water / rainfall, pH, salinity, dissolved oxygen, soil mineral nutrients**.
Give three examples of biotic factors.
Any of: **food supply, competition, predation, disease, availability of mates**.
What is meant by the distribution of a species?
The **range of places where a species is found** — where its individuals actually live.
What is a range of tolerance?
The range of values of an abiotic factor within which an organism can **survive**; outside it the organism is **absent**.
What happens beyond an organism's limits of tolerance?
The factor is too extreme, so the organism **cannot survive there** and is **absent**.
What is a limiting factor?
The factor in **shortest supply** (or most extreme), which **holds back** growth or survival in that place.
In open ocean, why might phytoplankton growth be limited by iron?
**Iron** is scarce there, so even with plenty of light and nutrients, growth only increases when **iron is added** — iron is the limiting factor.
Which two types of factor set a species' distribution?
**Abiotic** (non-living conditions) **and biotic** (interactions with other organisms) — both together.
How can a biotic factor make a species absent from suitable habitat?
Through **competition, predation, disease or too little food** — a living factor can exclude a species even where conditions are right.
Is temperature an abiotic or a biotic factor?
**Abiotic** — it is a non-living, physical condition.
Is competition an abiotic or a biotic factor?
**Biotic** — it is an interaction between living organisms.
Why do ecologists estimate population size instead of counting every organism?
Counting everything is **impractical** — there are too many, many **hide**, and many **move** — so a random **sample** is counted and scaled up.
Why must sampling be random?
To avoid **bias**, so the sample is **representative** of the whole habitat.
Which method is used for non-moving organisms like plants?
**Quadrat sampling** — count organisms in random quadrats, find the mean, and scale up.
Which method is used for animals that move?
**Capture–mark–release–recapture** — moving animals can't be counted in a fixed area.
How does quadrat sampling estimate a population?
Count organisms in several **random quadrats**, find the **mean per quadrat**, then **scale up** to the whole habitat area.
What are the steps of capture–mark–release–recapture?
**Capture** and **mark** a first sample, **release** them, let them mix, **recapture** a second sample, and count how many are marked.
State the Lincoln index equation.
**N = (M × n) ÷ m**.
In the Lincoln index, what is M?
The **number marked** (and released) in the **first** sample.
In the Lincoln index, what is n?
The **total size of the second** sample (the recapture).
In the Lincoln index, what is m?
The number in the second sample that were **already marked** (recaptured marks).
What is N in the Lincoln index?
The **estimated total population size**.
Name two assumptions of capture–mark–release–recapture.
Marked animals **mix back evenly**; **no births, deaths or migration** between samples; marks are **not lost or harmful**; marking doesn't change the chance of recapture.
If 60 are marked, a second sample of 80 contains 20 marks, what is the estimated population?
N = (60 × 80) ÷ 20 = **240**.
A memory hook for choosing the method?
**Sit still → quadrat; runs away → recapture.**
Define carrying capacity.
The **maximum population size** of a species that a habitat can support over a long period, given its resources.
What shape is a population growth curve?
A **sigmoid (S-shaped) curve**: a slow lag start, a rapid exponential rise, then a plateau at the carrying capacity.
Name the phases of the sigmoid growth curve in order.
**Lag → exponential → transitional → plateau.**
Why is growth so fast in the exponential phase?
There are **plenty of resources and few limiting factors**, so nearly all individuals survive and reproduce — the population grows by ever-larger amounts.
Why does a population level off at the plateau?
**Limiting factors** (shortage of food, water, space; disease; predation) raise deaths until **births ≈ deaths**, so growth stops at the carrying capacity.
What is happening to births and deaths at the carrying capacity?
**Births ≈ deaths** — they are roughly equal, so the population stays about the same size.
Define a limiting factor.
Any factor that **slows or stops** a population growing — e.g. shortage of food, water or space, disease, or predation.
What is a density-DEPENDENT limiting factor? Give an example.
One whose effect gets **stronger as the population becomes more crowded** — e.g. competition, disease or predation.
What is a density-INDEPENDENT limiting factor? Give an example.
One that acts the **same regardless of population density** — e.g. drought, fire, flood or extreme cold.
If the flat top of a growth curve (region X) is labelled, what factor causes it?
A **limiting factor** such as competition for food / limited space, as the population reaches its carrying capacity.
How does temperature influence the population growth of a plant like duckweed?
There is an **optimum temperature**; temperature sets the rate of enzyme reactions (e.g. photosynthesis), so growth is fastest at the optimum, slow when too cold, and reduced when too hot (enzymes denature).
Why can't a population grow exponentially forever?
Resources (food, water, space) are **limited**, so as numbers rise, limiting factors take effect and growth slows to the carrying capacity.
What is an interspecific relationship?
A close interaction **between two different species** in a community.
How can every interspecific relationship be summarised?
By a **pair of signs** — for each species: benefits (**+**), harmed (**–**) or unaffected (**0**).
Which relationship benefits BOTH species?
**Mutualism** — it is the only **+ / +** relationship.
Which relationship harms BOTH species?
**Interspecific competition** — it is the only **– / –** relationship.
Define mutualism.
An interaction in which **two species live together and both benefit** (+ / +).
Define interspecific competition.
An interaction in which **two species compete for the same limited resource**, so **both are harmed** (– / –).
Define predation.
An interaction in which one animal (the predator) **kills and eats** another animal (the prey). Predator +, prey –.
Define herbivory.
An interaction in which an **animal feeds on a plant**. Herbivore +, plant –.
Define parasitism.
An interaction in which a **parasite lives on or in a host**, gaining nutrients (+) while harming the host (–).
Define pathogenicity.
An interaction in which a **pathogen (a disease-causing organism) infects a host**, benefiting itself (+) and causing disease in the host (–).
How do you tell a predator from a parasite?
A **predator kills its prey quickly**; a **parasite lives on/in one host** and feeds off it over time without quickly killing it.
If both organisms are harmed, which relationship is it?
Almost always **interspecific competition** (– / –).
How do you score 'explain the type of relationship' for 2 marks?
**Name** the relationship **and justify** it using the **effect on each species** (the benefit or harm to each).
What is an ecological niche?
The **full role** of a species in its community — its abiotic tolerances, the resources it uses, and its interactions with other species.
State the competitive exclusion principle.
Two species that need the **same limited resource** cannot coexist **indefinitely**; the better competitor excludes the other.
What happens to the species that loses in competitive exclusion?
It is **excluded** — it dies out locally, or survives only by shifting to a **different niche** (using a different resource).
What is a fundamental niche?
The **whole niche** a species could occupy if **no competitors** were present.
What is a realized niche?
The **smaller** part of the niche a species **actually** occupies once competitors restrict it.
How does competition change a species' niche?
It shrinks the **fundamental niche** down to a smaller **realized niche**.
What is allelopathy?
When a **plant releases a chemical** that **inhibits the growth/germination of other plants** nearby, reducing competition.
What is antibiosis?
When a **microorganism releases a chemical** that **inhibits the growth of other microorganisms**, reducing competition.
Give an example of allelopathy.
The **black walnut** tree releases a chemical into the soil that stops many plants growing beneath it.
How can you tell allelopathy from antibiosis?
**Allelopathy** = a **plant** inhibits other **plants**; **antibiosis** = a **microbe** inhibits other **microbes**. Both are chemical competition.
If a population crashes only when grown WITH another species, what is the likely cause?
**Interspecific competition** leading to **competitive exclusion** — not predation or disease.
Why can two species sometimes coexist despite competing?
If their niches **overlap only partly**, they can use slightly different resources and avoid full competitive exclusion.
What is a keystone species?
A species with a **disproportionately large effect** on its community relative to its **abundance** — remove it and the community structure changes dramatically.
Where does the term 'keystone' come from?
The **keystone of an arch** — the small top stone that holds the arch up; remove it and the **whole arch collapses**.
Is a keystone species the same as the most abundant (dominant) species?
**No** — a keystone species is often present in **small numbers**; its importance comes from **what it does**, not how common it is.
What is a keystone predator?
A predator that controls the **strongest competitor**, keeping its numbers down so **many other species can coexist** — raising biodiversity.
What is an ecosystem engineer?
A keystone species that physically **changes the habitat** (e.g. a beaver building a dam), creating conditions many other species depend on.
Why is the beaver a keystone species?
Its **dams create wetland habitats** that fish, amphibians, insects and birds depend on, so its effect is **far larger than its numbers**.
What is a trophic cascade?
A chain of **knock-on effects** that spreads through a food web when one species (often a top predator) is added or removed.
What happens to a community when a keystone predator is removed?
Its prey is no longer controlled, so that prey **takes over and out-competes** other species — **biodiversity falls**.
How does a keystone predator affect biodiversity?
It **raises** biodiversity, by stopping the strongest competitor from taking over so many species can coexist.
In a sea-star removal experiment, what happens to prey diversity?
It **falls** — without the predator the mussels dominate the rock and crowd other species out.
Give one keystone predator example and one ecosystem-engineer example.
Keystone predator: a predatory **sea star** eating mussels. Ecosystem engineer: the **beaver** building dams.
Why does losing a keystone species reduce biodiversity?
Its stabilising **control is removed**, so one species takes over and **crowds out** the rest, leaving fewer different species.
Define an autotroph.
An organism that **makes its own organic molecules** from inorganic substances (e.g. CO₂), using an external energy source. 'Auto' = self.
Define a heterotroph.
An organism that **cannot make its own organic molecules** and must take in ready-made organic food from other organisms. 'Hetero' = other.
What carbon source do all autotrophs use?
**Inorganic carbon dioxide (CO₂)** — they fix it into organic molecules.
How do photoautotrophs get their energy?
From **light** (photosynthesis). Examples: plants, algae, cyanobacteria.
How do chemoautotrophs get their energy?
By **oxidising simple inorganic substances** (chemosynthesis). Examples: deep-sea vent bacteria.
How do photoautotrophs and chemoautotrophs differ?
Only in their **energy source** (light vs oxidising inorganic substances); both fix **CO₂** for carbon.
What is holozoic nutrition?
Heterotrophic nutrition where food is **ingested** and **digested internally** — the way animals feed.
What is a saprotroph?
A heterotroph that feeds on **dead or decaying** matter by releasing enzymes onto it and absorbing the products — **external digestion** (many fungi/bacteria).
What is a mixotroph?
An organism that uses **both** autotrophic and heterotrophic nutrition — it can make its own food and feed on others (e.g. Euglena).
Which organisms are the producers in an ecosystem?
**Autotrophs** — they produce organic molecules that feed the heterotrophs.
What two things define a mode of nutrition?
The **energy source** and the **carbon source** of the organism.
Where does a saprotroph digest its food?
**Outside** its body (external digestion) — then it absorbs the digested products.
What is a food chain?
A diagram showing a **single path of energy** through an ecosystem, drawn as organisms joined by **arrows**.
What is a food web?
**Several food chains linked together**, showing the many feeding relationships in an ecosystem more realistically.
What is a trophic level?
An organism's **feeding position** in a food chain (e.g. producer, primary consumer, secondary consumer).
Which way does a food-chain arrow point, and what does it show?
From the organism **being eaten** to the organism that **eats it** — the direction **energy flows** ('is eaten by').
What are the four trophic levels in order?
**Producer** (1) → **primary consumer** (2) → **secondary consumer** (3) → **tertiary consumer** (4).
What is a producer?
An organism that makes its own food by **photosynthesis** (an autotroph); it is always the **first** trophic level.
What is a primary consumer?
A **herbivore** — an organism that eats **producers** (the second trophic level).
What is a secondary consumer?
A **carnivore** that eats **primary consumers** (the third trophic level).
What is a tertiary consumer?
A **carnivore** that eats **secondary consumers** (the fourth trophic level).
How do you read an organism's trophic level from a chain?
**Count the arrows from the producer** up to it: 1 producer, 2 primary, 3 secondary, 4 tertiary consumer.
Can one organism occupy more than one trophic level?
**Yes** — in a food web an organism that feeds at different levels (e.g. eats both a herbivore and a carnivore) occupies two levels at once.
How do you find an organism's energy source in a food web?
**Trace its arrows backwards** until you reach a **producer**, which originally captured the energy from **sunlight**.
Where does the energy in almost every food chain originally come from?
**Sunlight** — captured by producers during **photosynthesis**.
About what percentage of energy passes to the next trophic level?
About **10%** — the other ~90% is lost at each level.
In what three main ways is energy lost between trophic levels?
As **heat from respiration**, in **faeces (undigested waste)**, and in **uneaten or dead material**.
What is the single biggest energy loss between trophic levels?
**Heat from respiration** — it leaves the ecosystem and cannot be passed on as food.
Define energy transfer efficiency.
The **percentage** of energy at one trophic level that is passed on to the next — usually about **10%**.
What is a pyramid of energy?
A diagram in which each bar shows the **energy** at one trophic level; the bars **get smaller** up the levels because energy is lost at each step.
Why do the bars of a pyramid of energy shrink going up?
Because each level holds **less energy** than the one below — only ~10% is passed on each step.
Is energy in an ecosystem recycled?
**No** — energy flows **one way** (sunlight → producers → consumers) and is steadily **lost as heat**; only nutrients are recycled.
Why do food chains rarely exceed four or five links?
After several transfers **too little energy remains** to support another trophic level.
Where does energy enter most ecosystems?
As **sunlight**, trapped by producers through **photosynthesis**.
Which part of an organism's energy CAN be passed to the next level?
Only the energy built into its **biomass (body)** — and only the part that is actually **eaten**.
Why is beef less energy-efficient to produce than chicken or plants?
Energy is lost at each trophic level, so the **extra transfer** (and cattle's poorer feed conversion) wastes more energy.
Why are top predators rare in an ecosystem?
There is **very little energy** left at the top trophic level, so it can only support **a small number** of them.
What is a persistent (non-biodegradable) pollutant?
A pollutant that is **not broken down** by enzymes or decomposers, so it stays in the environment and in organisms for a long time (e.g. DDT, mercury).
Define bioaccumulation.
The **build-up of a pollutant inside a single organism** over time, because it is taken in faster than it can be broken down or excreted.
Define biomagnification.
The **increase in a pollutant's concentration from one trophic level to the next**, so that it is highest in the top predator.
Which two properties let a pollutant biomagnify?
It is **persistent (non-biodegradable)** and **not excreted** — so it is stored (often in fat) and passed on.
Why is a persistent pollutant highest in the top predator?
Each consumer eats **many** contaminated prey and **stores all** their pollutant, so the concentration **multiplies at each trophic level**.
In what direction does a persistent toxin change up a food chain?
It **increases** up the chain — the opposite of energy, which decreases.
Why does the pollutant rise up the chain while energy falls?
The pollutant is **stored and passed on** (not used up or lost), whereas energy is lost as heat at each level.
Give an example of a pollutant that biomagnifies.
**DDT** (a pesticide) or **methyl mercury** — both are persistent and stored, not excreted.
What environmental effect did DDT have on birds of prey?
It biomagnified to high levels and caused **thin eggshells**, reducing breeding success and causing **population decline**.
Where in the body are many biomagnifying pollutants stored?
In **fat (fatty tissue)**, because they are often **fat-soluble** — so they are not excreted.
What is the difference in SCALE between bioaccumulation and biomagnification?
Bioaccumulation is **within one organism**; biomagnification is **between trophic levels** (up the chain).
Why does naming 'biomagnification' alone lose marks on an 'explain' question?
It names the process but does not give the **cause-and-effect** — you must say it is stored and that each consumer eats many prey, so it multiplies up the chain.
What is the carbon cycle?
The continuous **recycling of carbon** between the atmosphere, living organisms, the oceans and rocks — carbon is never made or destroyed.
Which single process REMOVES CO₂ from the air?
**Photosynthesis** — producers fix CO₂ into organic carbon (glucose).
Which three processes ADD CO₂ back to the air?
**Respiration, decomposition and combustion.**
How does carbon move from producers to animals?
By **feeding** — organic carbon passes along the **food chain**.
Which organisms carry out respiration?
**All living things** — producers, consumers and decomposers — releasing CO₂.
What happens to carbon during decomposition?
Decomposers (bacteria, fungi) break down dead matter and **respire**, releasing the stored carbon as **CO₂**.
What is combustion in the carbon cycle?
The **burning** of wood and fossil fuels, which releases their stored carbon as **CO₂**.
How do aquatic autotrophs obtain their carbon?
From **dissolved CO₂ and hydrogencarbonate (HCO₃⁻) ions** in the water around them.
How do land plants obtain their carbon?
As **CO₂ gas** taken directly from the air.
What is a carbon sink? Give examples.
A store that **takes carbon out of the air** — e.g. forests, peat bogs, limestone, fossil fuels, the deep ocean.
What is a carbon source? Give examples.
Something that **releases CO₂ into the air** — respiration, decomposition and combustion.
What conditions lock carbon away in peat?
**Waterlogged, anaerobic (low-oxygen) and acidic** conditions slow decomposition, so carbon-rich material builds up.
Why might atmospheric CO₂ rise?
When **combustion of fossil fuels** (a source) adds CO₂ **faster than photosynthesis** (the sink) can remove it.
On a carbon-cycle diagram, which arrow removes CO₂?
The **photosynthesis** arrow — running from CO₂ in the air into living things.
What is a decomposer?
An organism that feeds on **dead organic matter** and breaks it down, **releasing nutrients** back to the environment.
Name the two kinds of decomposer.
**Detritivores** and **saprotrophs**.
What is a saprotroph, and how does it feed?
A decomposer (mostly **bacteria and fungi**) that **secretes enzymes onto** dead matter and **absorbs** the soluble products — it digests **externally**.
What is a detritivore, and how does it feed?
An **animal** (e.g. earthworm, woodlouse) that **ingests** pieces of dead matter and digests them **internally**, in a gut.
Give the key difference between a detritivore and a saprotroph.
**Where digestion happens**: a detritivore digests **internally** (it ingests); a saprotroph digests **externally** (it secretes enzymes and absorbs).
What do detritivores and saprotrophs have in common?
Both are **decomposers** — they feed on **dead organic matter** and **recycle nutrients** back to the environment.
What is the role of decomposers in an ecosystem? (2 marks)
They **break down dead organic matter** AND **release/recycle inorganic nutrients** to the soil for producers to reuse.
What is nutrient cycling?
The repeated movement of nutrients (carbon, nitrogen, phosphorus) **between living organisms and the environment**, so the same atoms are **reused**.
Why are decomposers essential to an ecosystem?
They **unlock the nutrients** trapped in dead matter; without them, nutrients would stay locked away and **producers would run out of raw materials**.
On a nutrient-cycle diagram, what do the BOXES and ARROWS represent?
**Boxes = stores** of nutrients (soil, litter, biomass); **arrows = transfers** of nutrients between the stores.
Name two processes that REDUCE the soil nutrient store.
**Uptake by plant roots** and **leaching** (nutrients washed out by water); also runoff/erosion.
Why is the litter-to-soil nutrient flow large in a tropical rainforest?
It is **warm and wet**, so **decomposers are very active** and break litter down **quickly**, releasing nutrients fast.
What is DNA replication?
The process of copying a DNA molecule to make **two identical molecules**, done before a cell divides.
What does 'semi-conservative' replication mean?
Each new DNA molecule is made of **one original (parental) strand and one new strand**.
Why does 'semi' (half) appear in the name?
Because **half** of each new molecule — one whole strand — is **conserved** from the original.
What is a template strand?
An **old strand** used as a pattern to build a new complementary strand.
How are new strands built against each template?
By **complementary base pairing** — A pairs with T, and C pairs with G.
What does each daughter molecule contain after replication?
**One old (parental) strand and one new strand** — never two old or two new together.
What were the three possible models of replication?
**Conservative**, **semi-conservative** and **dispersive**.
How did Meselson and Stahl label the DNA?
They grew bacteria in **heavy ¹⁵N** (so all DNA was heavy), then switched them to **light ¹⁴N**.
What did the single intermediate band in generation 1 show?
Every molecule was half-heavy and half-light (one old + one new strand) — this **ruled out the conservative model**.
What did generation 2 (intermediate + light bands) show?
Some molecules were now fully light — this **ruled out the dispersive model**, leaving only semi-conservative.
What conclusion did Meselson and Stahl reach?
That DNA replication is **semi-conservative**.
On a Paper 1A diagram, how do you spot semi-conservative replication?
Each daughter molecule shows **one old (template) strand paired with one new strand**.
What is DNA replication?
Copying a DNA molecule to make **two identical molecules**, each with **one old (template) strand and one new strand**.
What does helicase do?
It **unwinds and unzips** the double helix by **breaking the hydrogen bonds** between the paired bases.
Which bonds does helicase break?
The **hydrogen bonds** between the paired bases (A–T, G–C) that hold the two strands together.
What is the role of DNA polymerase?
It **adds complementary nucleotides** to a template strand, **building the new strand** and joining the nucleotides with covalent bonds.
Which bonds does DNA polymerase form?
**Covalent bonds** that join the nucleotides along the sugar-phosphate backbone of the new strand.
In which direction does DNA polymerase build the new strand?
In the **5'->3' direction** — it adds new nucleotides only to the 3' end of the growing strand.
Which enzyme works first, helicase or DNA polymerase?
**Helicase** works first to open the helix; **DNA polymerase** follows to build the new strands.
What is a template strand?
An original (parental) strand whose base sequence is **read** to decide which nucleotides go into the new strand.
What rule decides which nucleotide is added to the new strand?
**Complementary base pairing**: A pairs with T, and G pairs with C.
Helicase breaks bonds — which kind, and where?
**Hydrogen** bonds, **between** the two strands (between the paired bases).
DNA polymerase forms bonds — which kind, and where?
**Covalent** bonds, **along** a strand (the sugar-phosphate backbone of the new strand).
Why is replication called 'semi-conservative'?
Because each new DNA molecule keeps **one old strand and one new strand** — half of the original is conserved.
What does PCR (the polymerase chain reaction) do?
It **amplifies** DNA — makes **many copies** of a chosen piece of DNA from a tiny sample.
Roughly how much does the DNA increase each PCR cycle?
It roughly **doubles** every cycle, so the increase is **exponential** (about a billion copies after ~30 cycles).
Name the three steps of one PCR cycle, in order.
**Denaturation → annealing → extension.**
Why is PCR heated to ~95 °C (denaturation)?
The high heat **breaks the hydrogen bonds**, separating the double helix into **two single strands**.
What happens at the annealing step (~55 °C)?
**Primers bind (anneal)** to their matching sequence on each single strand, marking where copying begins.
What happens at the extension step (~72 °C)?
**Taq polymerase** adds **nucleotides** to each primer to build a new **complementary strand** (72 °C is its optimum).
What is a primer?
A **short single strand of DNA** that binds to a matching sequence and marks where copying should start.
Why is Taq polymerase used in PCR?
It is **heat-stable (thermostable)** — it is **not denatured** by the ~95 °C step, so the same enzyme works every cycle.
Where does Taq polymerase come from?
From **Thermus aquaticus**, a bacterium that lives in **hot springs**, so its enzymes tolerate high temperatures.
What does gel electrophoresis do?
It **separates DNA fragments by size** so they can be seen and compared as a pattern of **bands**.
In gel electrophoresis, which fragments travel furthest?
The **smaller** fragments — they slip through the gel sieve more easily. (Small = far.)
Why does DNA move towards the positive electrode in a gel?
Because DNA is **negatively charged**, so the electric field pulls it towards the **positive electrode**.
On a PCR gel, what does the no-DNA control lane look like, and why?
It shows **no band** — with no template DNA there is nothing to amplify (it checks for contamination).
Predict the gel result if fewer PCR cycles are run.
**Fainter bands** — fewer cycles means **less DNA is made** (the amount roughly doubles each cycle).
What is the genome?
The **whole of an organism's genetic information** — **all** of its DNA, every gene and every base.
Put these in order, smallest to largest: gene, base, genome, chromosome.
**base ⊂ gene ⊂ chromosome ⊂ genome** — a base in a gene, a gene in a chromosome, all chromosomes make the genome.
Is the genome one gene or all of the DNA?
**All** of the DNA — the genome is the complete set, not a single gene or chromosome.
Which cells contain a complete copy of the genome?
**Every nucleated body cell** carries a complete copy of the whole genome.
Why can't a mature red blood cell supply the genome?
It has **no nucleus**, so it carries no DNA to copy.
What is DNA profiling?
A technique that reads the **variable repeated regions** of the genome to **identify an individual** or test how closely two people are **related**.
Why does DNA profiling avoid the coding genes?
The genes are almost **identical** between people, so they cannot tell individuals apart — the **variable repeats** can.
What part of the genome does a DNA profile compare?
The **number of short tandem repeats** (variable, non-coding regions) at several places in the genome.
Two DNA profiles share many repeat patterns. What does that suggest?
The two individuals are **closely related** — more shared patterns means a closer relationship.
Does a larger genome mean a more complex organism?
**No** — genome size does **not** correlate with complexity; some simpler organisms have larger genomes than humans.
Define a gene (versus the genome).
A **gene** is one length of DNA coding for a product; the **genome** is **all** of the DNA, containing thousands of genes.
Why is a small sample enough for DNA profiling?
Because **every nucleated cell** holds the whole genome, so even a single cell carries all of a person's DNA.
What is variation?
The **differences** that exist between **individuals of the same species**.
Which kind of variation is the raw material for evolution?
**Heritable** variation — differences caused by **alleles** that can be passed to offspring.
What are the three sources of heritable variation?
**Mutation**, **meiosis** (crossing over + independent assortment) and **random fertilisation**.
What is a mutation?
A **random change in the DNA base sequence** — the only source of brand-new alleles.
Which source makes NEW alleles, and which only SHUFFLE existing ones?
**Mutation** makes new alleles. **Meiosis** and **random fertilisation** shuffle existing alleles into new combinations.
How does sexual reproduction increase variation?
It produces **new combinations** of **existing alleles** (via meiosis and random fertilisation) — not new alleles.
Why is only germ-line (gamete) variation heritable?
Only mutations in **gametes / gamete-forming cells** are **passed to offspring**; somatic (body-cell) mutations are not.
Are most mutations beneficial?
No — most are **neutral or harmful**; only **occasionally** is one beneficial in a given environment.
Why is mutation called the 'ultimate source' of variation?
It is the **only** process that creates **genuinely new alleles**; everything else just re-combines existing ones.
Distinguish continuous and discontinuous variation.
**Continuous** = a smooth range (e.g. height), often many genes + environment. **Discontinuous** = distinct categories (e.g. blood group), usually one/few genes.
Define natural selection.
The process where individuals with **advantageous heritable variations survive and reproduce more**, so the advantageous **allele becomes more common** over generations.
What is the RESULT of natural selection?
A **change in allele frequency** in the **population** over generations — the helpful allele becomes more common and the population becomes better adapted.
Does a single individual evolve during its lifetime?
**No** — an individual keeps the alleles it was born with. The **population** changes over generations, not the individual.
What does 'survival of the fittest' actually mean?
Best able to **survive AND reproduce** — the individual that leaves the **most offspring**. Not necessarily the strongest or fastest.
Why must the variation be heritable?
Only **allele-based** variation can be **passed to offspring**, so only it can change in frequency over generations.
What is a selection pressure? Give examples.
An environmental factor that affects which variants survive — e.g. a **predator, disease, climate, or food shortage**.
List the steps of the natural-selection mechanism.
Variation → overproduction/struggle → selection pressure → differential survival → differential reproduction → **allele frequency rises** over generations.
Why does overproduction matter for natural selection?
More offspring are produced than can survive, creating a **struggle to survive** — so survival is unequal and selection can act.
What is a selection pressure?
Any environmental factor that affects an organism's chance of **surviving and reproducing**, so it decides which traits are favoured.
What is an abiotic selection pressure? Give examples.
A **non-living** factor — e.g. **temperature, drought, salinity, light, pH**.
What is a biotic selection pressure? Give examples.
A pressure from **other organisms** — e.g. **predators, parasites/disease, competition** for food or mates.
What is sexual selection?
Selection for traits that raise **mating success** (getting a mate) rather than survival.
Name the two routes of sexual selection.
**Mate choice (intersexual)** — one sex chooses showy partners; and **mate competition (intrasexual)** — members of one sex fight for mates.
What kind of trait does sexual selection produce?
Showy or costly mating traits — **bright plumage, antlers, horns, large size, courtship displays**.
Why does a costly trait like a peacock's tail spread despite lowering survival?
The **gain in mating success outweighs the survival cost**, so males with it father more offspring.
What does the command term 'Evaluate' require?
Weigh a point **for** and a point **against**, then reach a **balanced judgement** — not a simple yes/no.
Is competition for mates an abiotic or biotic pressure?
**Biotic** — it involves other living organisms (rivals and potential mates).
In natural selection, where does the variation come from — before or after the selection pressure?
**Before.** Variation (often from a **random mutation**) already exists; the pressure only **selects** which variants survive — it never **creates** the trait.
Outline how bacteria become resistant to an antibiotic.
A **random mutation** makes a resistant variant; the antibiotic **kills the susceptible** bacteria; the **resistant survive and reproduce** (incl. via **plasmids**); so the **resistance allele becomes common**.
Why do resistant weeds increase as herbicide use rises?
The herbicide is a **selection pressure** — it kills non-resistant weeds, so the rare **resistant** variant survives and reproduces, and its frequency **rises as spraying continues**.
What is heterozygote advantage?
When the **heterozygote** has **higher fitness** than either homozygote, so **both alleles are kept** in the population (balancing selection).
Explain why the sickle-cell allele persists in malaria regions.
**Carriers** (heterozygotes) are **more resistant to malaria** and avoid severe anaemia, so they are the **fittest** and reproduce most — keeping the sickle allele at **moderate frequency**.
What did Endler's guppy experiments demonstrate?
Natural selection in **real time**: **predation** favours dull, camouflaged males while **sexual selection** favours bright males, so colouration **shifts in a few generations**.
State the four steps common to every case of natural selection in action.
**Variation** → a **selection pressure** removes some variants → favoured variants **survive and reproduce** → the helpful **allele becomes more common** over generations.
What is a stable ecosystem?
One that **stays roughly the same over time** and **returns to balance after a disturbance**.
Why is stability called an 'emergent property'?
It belongs to the **whole ecosystem working together**, not to any single organism — it emerges only at the level of the whole system.
What is resilience (of an ecosystem)?
The ability to **recover and return to its normal state** after a disturbance.
List the four requirements for a stable ecosystem.
**1)** a continuous supply of energy, **2)** recycling of nutrients, **3)** genetic diversity within populations, **4)** steady climatic/abiotic variables.
Why must energy be continuously supplied to an ecosystem?
Energy is **lost as heat** at each trophic level and **cannot be recycled**, so it must keep coming in (as sunlight).
Why are nutrients recycled rather than constantly resupplied?
The chemical elements (C, N, P) are **finite**, so **decomposers return them** to the soil/water for producers to reuse.
Why does genetic diversity help keep an ecosystem stable?
Variation means **some individuals survive** a new disease or stress, so a whole population is **not wiped out** by one change.
Why does high biodiversity make an ecosystem more resilient?
Species have **overlapping roles**, so if one is lost **another can fill the role** — the web is not broken and the ecosystem returns to balance.
In one line: how do energy and nutrients move through an ecosystem?
**Energy flows through** (lost as heat); **matter/nutrients cycle round** (recycled).
What is a disturbance in an ecosystem?
Any event that knocks an ecosystem out of its steady state — e.g. **fertiliser run-off, wildfire, or pollution**.
What is a tipping point?
A threshold beyond which a disturbance causes a **self-reinforcing change** that flips the ecosystem into a **new stable state** it cannot easily recover from.
Deflection vs tipping — what is the difference?
A **deflection** is recoverable (the system bounces back); past a **tipping point** the change feeds itself and the system settles in a new state.
What is eutrophication?
The over-enrichment of water with **nitrate and phosphate** (often from fertiliser run-off), causing an **algal bloom** and then a fall in dissolved oxygen.
Predict what happens when fertiliser leaches into a lake.
**Algal bloom** → light blocked, plants die → **decomposers respire** and use up the oxygen (high **BOD**) → **fish die**.
What does a high BOD mean?
That **decomposers are using up a lot of dissolved oxygen** breaking down dead organic matter, leaving little for fish and other aerobic organisms.
How does a wildfire raise the risk of soil erosion?
It removes the **vegetation and roots** that bind the soil; the **bare soil** is then **washed away by rain and blown away by wind**.
In eutrophication, why does the oxygen fall?
Because **decomposers multiply and respire aerobically** as they break down the dead algae and plants (high BOD) — not because the algae 'use it up'.
What does 'sustainability' mean for harvesting a resource?
Using it so it lasts indefinitely — taking **no more than is naturally replaced**, so the stock is not depleted.
When is a harvest unsustainable?
When **more is removed than is replaced** each year — the stock declines and can **collapse**.
What is a mesocosm?
A **small, enclosed experimental ecosystem** (e.g. a sealed tank or fenced plot) used to study how an ecosystem behaves.
Give one strength and one limitation of a mesocosm.
Strength: **controlled, cheap, repeatable and safe/ethical**. Limitation: **small and simplified**, so it may not match a real ecosystem.
Define biomagnification.
The **increase in a persistent pollutant's concentration at each higher trophic level** of a food chain.
Why does a pollutant biomagnify up a food chain?
It is **persistent** (not broken down or excreted), and each predator **eats many prey**, so it keeps all of their pollutant and the concentration multiplies up the chain.
Which organism is worst affected by biomagnification?
The **top predator** — it has the **highest** concentration of the pollutant.
How is biomagnification different from bioaccumulation?
**Bioaccumulation** = build-up within **one organism** over its life. **Biomagnification** = increase **up the food chain**, level by level.
Define phenotypic plasticity.
The ability of **one genotype** to produce **different phenotypes** in response to **different environments**, within an individual's lifetime.
Does the genotype change in phenotypic plasticity?
**No.** The DNA stays the same — only the **environment** changes how the genes are expressed.
Is a plastic (phenotypic) change inherited?
**No** — it happens within one individual's lifetime and is **not passed on** to offspring.
How is phenotypic plasticity different from natural selection?
Natural selection changes **alleles in a population over generations** (heritable). Plasticity changes the **phenotype of one individual** because of its **environment** (not heritable).
Give an example of phenotypic plasticity.
A moth species reared at different **temperatures** develops different **wing colours** despite the **same genotype** (or: an Arctic hare's white winter / brown summer coat).
In one line, what should a plasticity answer always say?
**Same genotype → different phenotype, caused by the environment.**
What was Earth's early atmosphere like?
**Almost no free oxygen** and a **high level of carbon dioxide** (a 'reducing' atmosphere).
What two main changes did living organisms cause to the atmosphere?
**Oxygen rose** (to ~21%) and **carbon dioxide fell** (to a low level).
Which process raised atmospheric oxygen?
**Photosynthesis** — it releases oxygen as a waste product.
Which organisms first added oxygen to the air?
**Cyanobacteria**, then later **algae and plants**.
What is the Great Oxidation Event?
The time, billions of years ago, when **oxygen from photosynthesis built up** in the atmosphere for the first time.
Why did carbon dioxide fall over geological time?
**Photosynthesis fixed CO₂** into organic carbon, which was then **buried as fossil fuels** or **locked in limestone**.
Where was the removed carbon stored?
In **fossil fuels** (coal, oil, gas) and in **limestone** (carbonate from marine shells).
Why did the rise in oxygen matter for life?
It enabled efficient **aerobic respiration** and formed the **ozone layer**, making **complex life** and life on land possible.
What is a greenhouse gas?
An atmospheric gas that **absorbs longwave (infrared) radiation** and re-radiates heat, warming the atmosphere — e.g. **CO₂, methane, water vapour**.
What is the greenhouse effect?
The warming of the atmosphere when **greenhouse gases absorb longwave infrared** radiation that would otherwise escape to space.
What is the enhanced greenhouse effect?
The **extra warming** caused when humans add **more greenhouse gases** (mainly CO₂) to the atmosphere.
Name the three greenhouse gases you must know.
**Carbon dioxide (CO₂)**, **methane (CH₄)** and **water vapour**.
Which gas is the main contributor to the ENHANCED greenhouse effect?
**Carbon dioxide (CO₂)** — mainly from burning fossil fuels.
Which type of radiation do greenhouse gases absorb?
**Longwave infrared** radiation (the heat re-radiated by the warm Earth) — not incoming visible light.
Why does sunlight still warm the surface if greenhouse gases trap heat?
Incoming **shortwave** sunlight **passes through** the gases to warm the surface; only the **outgoing longwave infrared** is absorbed.
Give two reasons methane contributes to the greenhouse effect.
(1) It **absorbs longwave infrared** radiation; (2) per molecule it is a **stronger absorber than CO₂**.
What is the main human source of extra CO₂?
**Burning fossil fuels** (coal, oil and gas); deforestation also contributes.
How do you explain a positive correlation between CO₂ and temperature on a graph?
As CO₂ rises, **more longwave infrared is absorbed**, so **less heat escapes** and **temperature rises** — both lines climb together.
Is the natural greenhouse effect harmful?
No — it keeps Earth **warm enough for life**. Global warming comes from the **enhanced** effect (extra human-added gases).
What does 'anthropogenic' mean?
**Caused by human activity** (rather than by natural processes).
Name the four main human activities that raise atmospheric CO₂.
**Burning fossil fuels**, **deforestation**, **agriculture**, and **cattle farming**. (Hook: FDAC.)
Which human activity adds the MOST CO₂?
**Burning fossil fuels** — it releases carbon stored in coal, oil and gas for millions of years.
What is a carbon sink vs a carbon source?
A **sink** removes CO₂ from the air (photosynthesis); a **source** adds CO₂ (respiration, decomposition, combustion).
Why does deforestation count as a 'double hit'?
It **removes a sink** (fewer trees photosynthesising) AND **releases** the stored carbon when the wood is burnt or rots.
Which action reduces carbon sequestration?
**Deforestation / clearing forest** — it stops trees locking carbon away by photosynthesis.
How does cattle farming warm the climate?
Cattle release **methane** (a potent greenhouse gas) from digestion, and clearing forest for pasture **removes a sink** and releases CO₂.
Why does atmospheric CO₂ rise each winter?
Most plants **stop photosynthesising**, but **respiration and decomposition continue**, so CO₂ is added faster than it is removed.
On a CO₂ graph, what causes the long-term rise vs the yearly zig-zag?
Long-term **rise** = human activity (mainly fossil fuels); yearly **zig-zag** = photosynthesis (down in summer) vs respiration/decomposition (up in winter).
What is a positive feedback loop?
A loop where the **effect makes the original change even bigger** — it is **self-amplifying**.
What is a negative feedback loop?
A loop where the **effect opposes the change**, returning the system **toward balance** (self-correcting).
Does 'positive' feedback mean the effect is good?
**No.** 'Positive' means the change is **amplified** — a positive climate feedback loop is **harmful** (more warming).
Trace the ice–albedo positive feedback loop.
Warming **melts bright ice** → exposes a **darker, lower-albedo surface** → it **absorbs more heat** → **more warming** → **more melting**.
How does thawing permafrost amplify warming?
It **releases trapped methane and CO2** (greenhouse gases) → these **trap more heat** → more warming → **more thaw**.
How does a warming ocean amplify warming?
Warm water **holds less dissolved CO2**, so CO2 is **released to the air**, trapping more heat → the ocean warms further.
What is albedo?
How much sunlight a surface **reflects**. Bright ice = **high** albedo (reflects); dark sea/land = **low** albedo (absorbs).
What is a tipping point?
A **threshold** past which change becomes **self-sustaining and irreversible** — runaway warming.
Name three positive climate feedback loops.
**Ice–albedo**, **permafrost methane** release, and **ocean CO2 release**.
How can you tell a process is positive feedback?
Finish the sentence: '…and that causes **MORE** warming.' If it adds to the change, it is **positive** feedback.
Name the three main consequence-threads of climate-change warming for living things.
**Distribution** (where species live), **ecosystem / community** change (who lives together) and **phenology** (when events happen).
Define phenology.
The **timing of seasonal life-cycle events** — such as budburst, flowering, breeding and migration.
In which direction do species' ranges tend to shift as the climate warms?
**Poleward** (towards the poles) and to **higher altitude**, following the cooler conditions they can tolerate.
Predict the effect of shifting hardiness zones on a tree species.
The tree **spreads northwards / poleward** (and uphill) into newly-suitable ground, because the band of climate it can survive in has moved that way.
How does warming change the community structure of an ecosystem?
**Warm-tolerant species are favoured and spread; cold-adapted species decline or are lost** — so the mix and abundance of species changes.
What is a phenological (trophic) mismatch?
When a consumer and its food respond to **different cues**, warming shifts their timing by different amounts, so they fall **out of step** (e.g. caterpillars peak before chicks hatch).
Why does a migrating bird often fail to track an earlier spring?
It responds to **day length**, which warming does **not** change, so it arrives on the same date while its temperature-cued food has already shifted earlier.
Give one effect of warming on a freshwater ecosystem besides species range.
Warmer water holds **less dissolved oxygen**, stressing oxygen-demanding species and favouring warm-tolerant ones.
Define ocean acidification.
The fall in **seawater pH** caused by the ocean absorbing extra atmospheric **CO₂**, which dissolves to form carbonic acid.
Why does dissolving CO₂ lower the ocean's pH?
Dissolved CO₂ forms **carbonic acid**, which releases **H⁺ ions** — more H⁺ means a lower (more acidic) pH.
What happens to carbonate ions as the ocean acidifies?
There are **fewer carbonate ions (CO₃²⁻)** available, because the extra H⁺ ions react with them.
Which organisms are most harmed by acidification, and why?
**Calcifying organisms** — corals, molluscs and some plankton — because they need carbonate ions to build **calcium carbonate** shells and skeletons.
How does acidification affect coral skeletons?
Corals build their **calcium carbonate** skeletons **more slowly**, and existing skeletons can **dissolve**, so reefs weaken.
How does acidification alter a coral reef ecosystem?
Weaker reefs provide **less habitat and shelter**, so **biodiversity falls** and fisheries that depend on reefs decline.
Name the main human causes of the extra atmospheric CO₂.
Burning **fossil fuels** and **deforestation** (which removes a CO₂ sink).
State the acidification chain in order.
More CO₂ → dissolves → **carbonic acid** → lower **pH** → fewer **carbonate ions** → slower/dissolving **calcium carbonate**.
What does mitigation of climate change mean?
**Reducing the cause** — lowering greenhouse-gas emissions or **removing CO₂** from the atmosphere.
How is adaptation different from mitigation?
**Adaptation copes with the effects** of warming (e.g. sea walls) and does **not lower CO₂**; **mitigation reduces the cause**.
How does renewable energy mitigate climate change?
Solar, wind and hydro generate energy **without burning fossil fuels**, so **less CO₂ is added** to the atmosphere.
What is a carbon sink? Give examples.
A store that **removes more CO₂ than it releases** — **forests, peatlands, soils and oceans**.
Why does protecting forests help mitigate climate change?
Living trees **remove CO₂ by photosynthesis** (sequestration) and **store carbon in wood/soil**, keeping it out of the air.
Why is deforestation doubly harmful?
It **removes a carbon sink** (less CO₂ removed) AND **releases stored carbon** when trees are burned or rot.
Name one way to mitigate climate change other than energy and forests.
**Cut methane** (fewer cattle, better landfill) or use **carbon capture and storage (CCS)**.
Is building a sea wall mitigation or adaptation?
**Adaptation** — it copes with an effect (rising sea level) and does **not lower CO₂**.
What is transcription?
The copying of a gene's DNA base sequence into a complementary molecule of **mRNA**. It happens in the **nucleus**.
Which enzyme carries out transcription?
**RNA polymerase** — it unwinds the DNA and joins RNA nucleotides into mRNA.
Where does transcription take place?
In the **nucleus** (where the DNA is).
What is mRNA?
A single-stranded copy of a gene that carries its base sequence **out of the nucleus to a ribosome** to be translated.
How many DNA strands are copied during transcription?
**One** — only the **template strand** is read and copied.
In mRNA, which base pairs with adenine (A) on the DNA template?
**Uracil (U)** — RNA has no thymine.
What are the base-pairing rules in transcription?
Template **A → U**, template **T → A**, template **C → G**, template **G → C**.
Why does mRNA use uracil instead of thymine?
RNA contains **uracil (U)** in place of thymine; so a template adenine is copied as **U**, never T.
Why is mRNA important in protein synthesis?
It **carries the gene's code out of the nucleus to a ribosome**, where it is translated into a polypeptide.
What does RNA polymerase do, step by step?
Binds the gene, **unwinds** the DNA, reads **one template strand**, pairs and **joins free RNA nucleotides** into mRNA.
Match the enzymes: which makes mRNA and which copies DNA?
**RNA polymerase** → transcription (mRNA); **DNA polymerase** → DNA replication.
A drug blocks RNA polymerase. What happens to protein synthesis?
**No mRNA is made**, so there is nothing for the ribosome to translate — the protein cannot be built.
What is a codon?
A group of **three** consecutive bases on mRNA that codes for **one amino acid** (or a start/stop signal).
How many bases are read at a time when decoding mRNA?
**Three** — the genetic code is a **triplet** code, read in non-overlapping groups of three.
What is the genetic code?
The set of rules linking each mRNA **codon** to the **amino acid** it specifies; it is nearly the same in all living things.
How many possible codons are there, and why?
**64** — there are 4 bases and codons are 3 bases long, so **4 × 4 × 4 = 64**. This covers 20 amino acids plus start/stop.
What does it mean that the genetic code is universal?
Almost **all organisms** use the **same codons** for the same amino acids.
Why does universality make genetic engineering possible?
Because the code is shared, a gene from one species can be **read correctly** by another (e.g. a human gene placed in bacteria).
What does it mean that the genetic code is degenerate (redundant)?
**More than one codon** can code for the **same amino acid** (e.g. UUU and UUC both code for phenylalanine).
Give an example of degeneracy.
**UUU and UUC** both code for **phenylalanine**; **UCU and UCC** both code for **serine**.
What is a silent mutation?
A base substitution that changes a codon to another codon for the **same amino acid**, so the **protein is unchanged**.
How does degeneracy allow silent mutations?
Because several codons code for the same amino acid, a base change can give a different codon that still specifies the **same** amino acid.
How do you read an mRNA sequence using a codon table?
**Split it into non-overlapping threes**, look up each codon in turn, and keep the amino acids in **order**.
What is the difference between 'universal' and 'degenerate'?
**Universal** = the same code in all organisms (between species); **degenerate** = several codons for one amino acid (within the code).
What is translation?
The process where a **ribosome** reads an **mRNA** and builds the matching chain of amino acids (a **polypeptide**).
Where does translation take place?
At a **ribosome** (in the cytoplasm).
What is a codon?
A group of **three mRNA bases** that codes for **one amino acid** (or a stop signal).
How many bases are read for each amino acid?
**Three** — the mRNA is read one **codon** (3 bases) at a time.
What is the job of a tRNA?
It **brings the correct amino acid** to the ribosome; its **anticodon** base-pairs with the mRNA codon.
What is an anticodon?
The **three bases on a tRNA** that base-pair with a complementary **codon** on the mRNA.
How is the correct amino acid placed in the right position?
Each tRNA **anticodon** pairs with the matching **codon**, and each tRNA carries only **one specific amino acid**.
What bond joins amino acids in the polypeptide?
A **peptide bond**, formed by the ribosome as each amino acid is added.
What ends translation?
A **stop codon** — no tRNA matches it, so no more amino acids are added and the polypeptide is released.
How do you find the number of mRNA bases from the number of amino acids?
**Bases = amino acids × 3** (three bases per codon); add 3 more for the stop codon.
How many mRNA bases code for a 30-amino-acid polypeptide?
30 × 3 = **90 bases** (93 if the stop codon is counted).
Why do polypeptides on the same mRNA differ in length?
They are caught **part-way through synthesis**; ribosomes further along the mRNA have added **more amino acids**, so their chains are longer.
Which step is translation: transcription or making the polypeptide?
Translation is **making the polypeptide** at the ribosome. Transcription is making the **mRNA** in the nucleus.
What is a polypeptide?
The **chain of amino acids** produced by translation, which folds up to form a **protein**.
What is a mutation?
A **random change to the base sequence of DNA**.
Why are mutations important for variation?
They are the **source of new alleles** — the ultimate origin of all genetic variation.
How does a mutation create a new allele?
By **changing the base sequence** of an existing gene, producing a new version (allele) of it.
What are the three types of gene mutation?
**Substitution**, **insertion** and **deletion**.
Define a substitution mutation.
One base is **swapped for a different base**; the total number of bases stays the same.
Define an insertion mutation.
An extra base is **added** into the sequence; the total number of bases increases.
Define a deletion mutation.
A base is **removed** from the sequence; the total number of bases decreases.
What is a frameshift, and which mutations cause it?
A shift in the reading frame so every codon downstream is read differently — caused by **insertion or deletion**.
Why doesn't a substitution cause a frameshift?
Because it **does not change the number of bases** — the reading frame stays the same, so only one codon is affected.
How can you classify a mutation from two base sequences?
**Count the bases**: same number (one letter different) = substitution; one more = insertion; one fewer = deletion.
What is a mutagen? Give an example.
Anything that **increases the rate of mutation** — for example **UV light**, X-rays or certain chemicals.
Are mutations always harmful?
**No** — they can be harmful, neutral or beneficial; they are random changes.
Give one similarity between substitution and insertion.
Both are **random changes to the DNA base sequence** and both can produce a **new allele**.
Give one difference between substitution and insertion.
Substitution **swaps** a base (number unchanged); insertion **adds** a base (number increases, causing a frameshift).
Define a germline mutation.
A mutation in a **gamete** (egg/sperm) or a gamete-forming cell. It **can be inherited** by offspring.
Define a somatic mutation.
A mutation in any **body cell other than a gamete-forming cell**. It **cannot be inherited**.
Which type of mutation can be inherited, and why?
A **germline** mutation — it is in a gamete (or gamete-forming cell), so it is passed to offspring through reproduction.
In which cell would a mutation be heritable?
A **gamete-forming (germline) cell** — for example a cell in the **testis or ovary**, or a sperm or egg.
What is a mutagen?
An **agent that increases the rate of mutation** — e.g. UV light, X-rays, or chemicals in tobacco smoke.
Give two examples of mutagens.
**Radiation** (UV light, X-rays) and **chemicals** (e.g. those in tobacco smoke).
What is a carcinogen?
A **mutagen that increases the risk of cancer** (for example the chemicals in tobacco smoke).
Define cancer.
A disease in which body cells **divide uncontrollably**, forming a **tumour** that can invade and spread.
Outline how a mutation can lead to cancer.
A mutation in a gene controlling **cell division** → the cell **divides uncontrollably** → mutations **accumulate** → a **tumour** forms.
Why does cancer usually need more than one mutation?
It requires an **accumulation of several mutations** in the same cell line before division becomes fully uncontrolled.
How can smoking cause lung cancer?
Chemicals in smoke are **mutagens** → they cause **mutations** in lung-cell DNA (cell-division genes) → **uncontrolled division** → a **tumour**.
Is cancer normally inherited?
**No** — cancer arises from **somatic** mutations in body cells, so it is not passed to offspring (only an inherited *risk* can run in families).
What type of mutation causes sickle-cell anaemia?
A **base substitution** — one base in the haemoglobin gene is swapped for another.
Which protein is affected in sickle-cell anaemia?
**Haemoglobin** — the oxygen-carrying protein in red blood cells.
Which amino acid change does the sickle-cell mutation cause?
**Glutamic acid is replaced by valine** in the haemoglobin chain.
How many bases and amino acids actually change?
Just **one base** in the gene, which changes just **one amino acid** in the protein.
What is HbS?
**Sickle haemoglobin** — the abnormal haemoglobin made by the sickle-cell allele. It sticks together into fibres when oxygen is low.
Why do red blood cells become sickle-shaped?
When oxygen is low, abnormal haemoglobin (HbS) **sticks together into fibres** that pull the cell into a rigid sickle (crescent) shape.
Define a base substitution.
A mutation in which **one base in the DNA is replaced by a different base**.
Define phenotype.
The **observable characteristics** of an organism — here, the symptoms of sickle-cell anaemia.
Why do sickled cells cause pain?
They are **rigid** and get stuck, **blocking small blood vessels (capillaries)**.
Why does sickle-cell anaemia cause tiredness and anaemia?
Sickled cells **carry less oxygen** and are **destroyed faster**, so tissues get less oxygen and there are too few red blood cells.
State the cascade from mutation to phenotype in order.
Base substitution -> changed codon -> one amino acid changed (glutamic acid -> valine) -> abnormal haemoglobin -> sickled cells -> sickle-cell anaemia.
Why can one base change cause a serious disease?
The gene is a **code**: one base change can change one codon, then one amino acid, then the **shape and behaviour** of the whole protein.
What is a chromosome mutation?
A change in the **number (or structure) of whole chromosomes**, rather than a change to the DNA bases of one gene.
Define non-disjunction.
The **failure of chromosomes (meiosis I) or sister chromatids (meiosis II) to separate** during meiosis, so both copies end up in the same gamete.
What does the word 'non-disjunction' literally mean?
'Disjunction' = separating, so **non-disjunction = not separating**.
What kind of gamete does non-disjunction produce?
One gamete with an **extra chromosome (n + 1)** and another **missing that chromosome (n − 1)**.
Define aneuploidy.
Having an **abnormal number of chromosomes** — one too many or one too few — rather than a whole extra set.
Define trisomy.
Having **three copies** of a particular chromosome instead of the normal two.
Which chromosome is present in three copies in Down syndrome?
**Chromosome 21** — three copies is called **trisomy 21**.
Outline how non-disjunction causes Down syndrome.
Chromosome 21 **fails to separate** in meiosis → a gamete gets an **extra copy** → **fertilisation** adds a third copy → **trisomy 21**.
Why is the offspring affected in every cell?
The whole body grows from the single zygote by **mitosis**, so **every cell** inherits the extra chromosome.
How does a chromosome mutation differ from a gene mutation?
A gene mutation changes **a few DNA bases** in one gene; a chromosome mutation adds or loses a **whole chromosome** and can be seen on a karyogram.
How does Down-syndrome incidence change with maternal age?
It **increases with age**, slowly at first and then **steeply** at older ages.
Can non-disjunction be seen on a karyogram?
**Yes** — an extra or missing whole chromosome shows up as an extra (or absent) band, unlike a tiny gene mutation.
What is genetic modification?
Deliberately changing an organism's DNA — for example by **adding a gene** from another organism or **editing** an existing gene.
What is a transgenic organism?
A GM organism that carries a gene **transferred from a different species**.
What does a restriction enzyme do?
**Cuts** DNA at a specific recognition sequence, often leaving short single-stranded **sticky ends**.
What does DNA ligase do?
**Joins** two pieces of DNA by re-forming the **sugar–phosphate backbone** — it seals the gene into the vector.
What is a vector in gene transfer?
A small loop of DNA (often a bacterial **plasmid**) that **carries a gene into a host cell**.
What is recombinant DNA?
A single DNA molecule made by **joining DNA from two different sources** (e.g. a plasmid with a new gene added).
Why is the same restriction enzyme used to cut the gene and the vector?
So both have the **same, matching sticky ends**, which are **complementary** and can base-pair together before ligase seals them.
Name the correct order of tools in gene transfer.
Restriction enzyme **cuts** → DNA ligase **joins** (recombinant DNA) → vector **carries** the gene into the host → host **expresses** it.
What is transformation in genetic engineering?
The **uptake of the recombinant plasmid (vector) by a host cell**, after which the gene is expressed.
How does CRISPR-Cas9 find the DNA to cut?
A **guide RNA** base-pairs with the chosen target sequence and leads the **Cas9** protein there to **cut** the DNA.
How is CRISPR-Cas9 different from classic gene transfer?
CRISPR **edits / knocks out a gene already in the cell**, rather than **adding** a foreign gene.
Give one advantage of a GM crop.
Higher **yield**, less crop lost to weeds/pests, less spraying, or more nutritious / drought-tolerant crops.
Give one concern about GM crops.
GM genes could **spread to wild plants**, long-term effects are **uncertain**, seeds are **patented/costly**, or there are **ethical** objections.
Which enzyme cuts DNA and which joins it?
**Restriction enzyme cuts**; **DNA ligase joins**.
What are the two main stages of DNA profiling?
**PCR** (copies the DNA) then **gel electrophoresis** (separates the copies by size).
What does PCR stand for, and what does it do?
**Polymerase chain reaction** — it makes **millions of copies** of a chosen piece of DNA (amplification).
Which profiling stage uses the polymerase chain reaction?
The **amplification (copying)** stage.
What are the three steps of one PCR cycle?
**Denaturation** (~95 °C), **annealing** of primers (~55 °C) and **extension** by Taq polymerase (~72 °C).
What happens during denaturation in PCR?
The DNA is heated to ~95 °C, which **separates the double helix into two single strands**.
What happens during annealing in PCR?
The mixture cools to ~55 °C so that short **primers bind** to each single strand.
What happens during extension in PCR?
At ~72 °C, **Taq polymerase** adds nucleotides to build a new **complementary strand**.
Why must PCR use Taq polymerase?
Taq is **heat-stable**, so it survives the ~95 °C step that would destroy a normal enzyme.
What happens to the amount of DNA each PCR cycle?
It **doubles** — repeated cycling gives millions of copies.
What does gel electrophoresis do?
It **separates DNA fragments by size** using an electric field.
Why does DNA move toward the anode (+) in a gel?
Because DNA is **negatively charged**, so it is pulled toward the positive electrode.
On a gel, which fragments travel furthest?
**Smaller (shorter) fragments** — they slip through the gel more easily.
What is the cell cycle?
The **repeating sequence of events** a cell goes through from when it is formed to when it divides into two.
What are the two main parts of the cell cycle?
A long **interphase** (the cell grows and copies its DNA) and a short **mitotic phase (M)** where it divides.
What is interphase?
The part of the cell cycle when the cell is **not dividing** — it **grows** and **replicates its DNA**. It is made of G1, S and G2.
Which three stages make up interphase, in order?
**G1, then S, then G2.**
What happens in G1 phase?
The cell **grows larger** and makes new proteins and organelles.
What happens in S phase?
The **DNA is replicated** (copied) — so the amount of DNA in the cell **doubles**.
What happens in G2 phase?
The cell keeps **growing** and **prepares to divide**, checking the copied DNA is ready.
What happens in the M (mitotic) phase?
The **nucleus divides** (mitosis) and the **cell splits in two** (cytokinesis).
Is the M phase part of interphase?
**No** — interphase is only G1, S and G2. The M phase is the separate dividing part.
How does the DNA quantity differ between G1 and G2?
A cell at **G2 has twice as much DNA** as a cell at G1, because DNA is copied in S phase (in between).
Which is the longest part of the cell cycle?
**Interphase** — the cell spends most of its time growing and copying DNA; the M phase (division) is short.
On a DNA-mass graph, what does a rising line mean?
The cell is in **S phase**, copying (replicating) its DNA.
On a DNA-mass graph, what does a sudden drop to half mean?
The cell is **dividing (mitosis)** and sharing its DNA equally between two daughter cells.
What is mitosis?
The division of a nucleus into **two genetically identical** daughter nuclei, each with the **same number of chromosomes** as the parent.
What are the four phases of mitosis, in order?
**Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase** (remember **PMAT**).
What happens in prophase?
Chromosomes **condense** (coil up) and become visible; the spindle starts to form and the nuclear membrane breaks down.
What happens in metaphase?
Chromosomes line up **single file along the middle (equator)** of the cell, attached to spindle fibres.
What happens in anaphase?
The centromeres split and the **sister chromatids are pulled apart** to opposite poles.
What happens in telophase?
**Two** new nuclear membranes form around the two groups of chromosomes, giving **two nuclei**.
What are sister chromatids?
The **two identical copies** of a chromosome, made by DNA replication and joined at the **centromere** until anaphase.
Why are the two daughter cells of mitosis genetically identical?
The DNA was **replicated once** into identical sister chromatids, which **separate** in anaphase so each cell gets one complete, identical set.
Do the daughter cells of mitosis stay diploid?
**Yes** — mitosis does not change the chromosome number; both daughters have the same (diploid) set as the parent.
What is mitosis used for in the body?
**Growth, repair** of tissue, and **asexual reproduction** — making more identical cells.
Name an event that occurs in BOTH mitosis and meiosis.
**DNA replication** beforehand (also chromosome condensation and spindle formation).
How does mitosis differ from meiosis in outcome?
Mitosis = **one** division → **two identical diploid** cells; meiosis = **two** divisions → **four different haploid** gametes.
What is cytokinesis?
The division of the **cytoplasm** to form two separate daughter cells, after mitosis has divided the nucleus.
What is the difference between mitosis and cytokinesis?
**Mitosis** divides the **nucleus** (chromosomes); **cytokinesis** divides the **cytoplasm** into two cells.
How does cytokinesis happen in an animal cell?
A **contractile ring** contracts and pulls the membrane inwards, forming a **cleavage furrow** that deepens until the cell is pinched in two.
How does cytokinesis happen in a plant cell?
**Vesicles** of wall material fuse to form a **cell plate**, which grows **outwards** to the existing walls and divides the cell.
Why do plant cells form a cell plate instead of pinching inwards?
Plant cells have a rigid **cell wall** that cannot pinch in, so a new wall (cell plate) must be built across the middle.
What is a cleavage furrow?
A groove formed in an **animal** cell's membrane that deepens until the cell is pinched into two daughter cells.
What is a cell plate?
A new wall built across the middle of a dividing **plant** cell, growing outwards until it separates the two daughter cells.
Is the cytoplasm usually shared equally between daughter cells?
**Yes** — in most divisions the cytoplasm is split roughly equally.
Which process is an exception to equal cytoplasm sharing?
**Egg (gamete) formation** — almost all the cytoplasm goes to one large egg, leaving tiny polar bodies.
What is the mitotic index?
The proportion of cells that are dividing: **cells in mitosis ÷ total cells counted**.
How do you calculate the mitotic index from a cell count?
Divide the number of cells **in mitosis** by the **total** number of cells counted (e.g. 30 ÷ 200 = 0.15).
What does a high mitotic index indicate?
A **large proportion of cells are dividing** → rapidly growing tissue (a meristem), or uncontrolled division in a tumour.
What is meiosis?
The division that makes **gametes**: one **diploid (2n)** cell divides **twice** into **four haploid (n)** cells that are genetically different.
Why is meiosis called a reduction division?
Because it **halves** the chromosome number — a **diploid (2n)** cell becomes **haploid (n)** gametes.
Define a diploid cell.
A cell with **two copies of each chromosome** (one set from each parent); in humans, 46 chromosomes = 23 pairs.
Define a haploid cell.
A cell with **one copy of each chromosome** — half the diploid number; in humans, 23 chromosomes. Gametes are haploid.
What are homologous chromosomes?
A **matching pair** of chromosomes — same size, carrying the same genes — one inherited from each parent.
What is separated during meiosis I?
The **homologous chromosomes** (the matching pairs) — this is where the chromosome number **halves**.
What is separated during meiosis II?
The **sister chromatids** — finishing the division to give **four** haploid cells.
What is crossing over, and when does it happen?
In **prophase I**, homologous chromosomes **pair up and swap matching sections**, mixing the alleles on each chromosome.
What is independent assortment, and when does it happen?
In **metaphase I**, each homologous **pair** is sorted to the poles **at random**, shuffling maternal and paternal chromosomes.
Which two processes make meiosis generate variation?
**Crossing over** (prophase I) and **independent assortment** (metaphase I).
Why must gametes be haploid?
So that **fertilisation** (two gametes joining) restores the **diploid** number without doubling it each generation.
Where does meiosis occur in a flowering plant?
In the **anthers** (making pollen / male gametes) and the **ovules** (making the female gametes / egg cells).
How many cells does one meiosis produce, and how do they compare?
**Four** haploid cells, all **genetically different** from each other and from the parent cell.
How does meiosis differ from mitosis?
Mitosis = one division → **two identical** diploid cells; meiosis = two divisions → **four different** haploid gametes.
What is a karyotype?
The **number and appearance** (size and shape) of all the chromosomes in a cell.
What is a karyogram?
A processed **photograph** of a cell's chromosomes, cut out and arranged in **homologous pairs** by size and centromere position.
What does ploidy mean?
The number of complete **chromosome sets** in a cell — haploid (n), diploid (2n) or polyploid (3n, 4n…).
What are homologous chromosomes?
A **matching pair** — same size, same centromere position, carrying the same genes (one from each parent).
How many chromosome sets does a diploid (2n) cell have, and where is it found?
**Two** sets — found in **body (somatic) cells** (human 2n = 46).
How many chromosome sets does a haploid (n) cell have, and where is it found?
**One** set — found in **gametes** (egg, sperm) (human n = 23).
What is a polyploid cell?
A cell with **three or more** chromosome sets (3n, 4n…), common in plants.
Which three criteria are used to classify chromosomes?
**Size (length)**, **centromere position**, and **banding pattern**.
What does 'acrocentric' mean?
A chromosome whose **centromere is near one end** rather than in the middle.
How can you tell a gamete from a somatic cell using a chromosome count?
**Single** chromosomes (one set) = haploid **gamete**; chromosomes in **pairs** (two sets) = diploid **somatic** cell.
What is non-disjunction?
When a chromosome pair (or sister chromatids) **fails to separate** during meiosis, giving a gamete an **extra or missing** chromosome.
What is trisomy, and give an example?
Having **three copies** of one chromosome instead of a pair — e.g. **trisomy 21 (Down syndrome)** or **trisomy 18 (Edward's syndrome)**.
List the steps to build a karyogram.
**Stain** the chromosomes, **photograph** them, **cut out** each one, **pair up the homologues**, and **arrange** the pairs largest to smallest.
Why are chromosomes studied during cell division for a karyogram?
Because then they are **condensed (short and thick)** and clearly **visible** under a microscope.
Define gene expression.
The **transcription and translation** of a gene to make its **protein** (the gene's product).
What is a gene's 'product'?
The **protein** that the gene codes for — the end result of expressing it.
Every cell in your body has the same DNA. So why are cells different?
**Differential gene expression** — each cell type switches on a **different subset** of genes, so it makes different proteins.
What happens to a gene's protein if the gene is switched off?
The gene is **not transcribed**, so **no mRNA and no protein** are made — even though the gene is still in the DNA.
Define differential gene expression.
Different cell types expressing **different subsets** of the same genome, so each makes a different set of proteins.
What is cell differentiation, in terms of genes?
A cell settling into a **stable pattern** of which genes it expresses — a 'cell type' is just a particular set of switched-on genes.
A neuron and a red blood cell both have the haemoglobin gene. Why does only one make haemoglobin?
The red-blood-cell precursor **expresses** (switches on) the gene; the neuron keeps it **off**, so only the red blood cell makes the protein.
What is the MAIN control point of gene expression?
**Transcription** — whether the gene is copied into **mRNA** at all.
What is a transcription factor?
A **protein** that binds a specific **regulatory sequence** in the DNA and controls whether a gene is transcribed.
Where do transcription factors bind?
To **regulatory sequences** in the DNA, such as the **promoter** or an **enhancer**.
What does an ACTIVATOR do?
It **helps RNA polymerase bind the promoter**, so transcription **starts** — the gene is switched **ON** (mRNA made).
What does a REPRESSOR do?
It **blocks RNA polymerase / the promoter**, so transcription is **prevented** — the gene is switched **OFF** (no mRNA).
Why do different cell types express different genes from the same DNA?
Because they contain **different sets of transcription factors**, so different genes are transcribed.
How can a hormone change which genes are expressed?
It can **act as, or switch on, a transcription factor** that binds specific genes and turns them on in target cells.
Define epigenetics.
**Heritable changes in gene expression** that do **NOT change the DNA base sequence**.
What does DNA methylation do to a gene?
Methyl (**CH₃**) groups are added to the DNA (often at the **promoter**), which **blocks transcription** and **silences** the gene (switches it OFF).
How does histone modification control gene expression?
It changes how **tightly the DNA is packed**: **tightly packed = OFF** (hidden from RNA polymerase), **loosely packed = ON** (accessible).
Tightly packed DNA — is the gene ON or OFF?
**OFF** — condensed DNA is inaccessible, so RNA polymerase cannot reach the gene.
How is an epigenetic change different from a mutation?
A **mutation changes the base sequence**; an **epigenetic** change only changes **whether the gene is expressed** — the sequence is unchanged.
Are epigenetic marks permanent?
No — they are **reversible**, and they can also be **inherited** (copied to daughter cells).
Name four environmental factors that can change epigenetic marks.
**Diet, stress, toxins and temperature** — each can add or remove marks and switch genes on or off.
How does the environment change gene expression?
It **alters epigenetic marks** (e.g. **methylation**) on top of the DNA, switching genes on or off — **without changing the base sequence**.
Are epigenetic changes inherited? How?
Yes — **through mitosis** to daughter cells (maintaining a differentiated state), and **sometimes across generations** to offspring.
Epigenetic change vs mutation — the key difference?
An **epigenetic change** alters the **marks** (base sequence unchanged, **reversible**); a **mutation** changes the **DNA base sequence** (usually **permanent**).
Why can identical twins end up different?
Same DNA, but **different environments change their epigenetic marks** over time → **same genotype, different phenotype**.
In one line, what does epigenetics explain?
How the **same genotype** can give **different phenotypes**, depending on the **environment** and the cell's **history**.
Define an epigenetic mark.
A **chemical tag on top of the DNA** (e.g. a methyl group) that changes **gene expression without changing the base sequence**.
Define a mutation.
A **permanent change to the DNA base sequence**. It is heritable, **not normally reversible**, and can change the **structure** of the protein.
Define an epigenetic change.
A change in **gene expression** (via methylation / histone tags) **without altering the base sequence**. It is **reversible** and changes the **amount** of protein made.
Mutation vs epigenetic change — the one-question test?
Did the **DNA base sequence change**? **Yes = mutation**; **no (but expression changed) = epigenetic change**.
Which is reversible — a mutation or an epigenetic change?
An **epigenetic change** is reversible (a tag can be added/removed); a **mutation** is not normally reversible.
How does each affect the protein?
A **mutation** can change the protein's **structure**; an **epigenetic change** changes the **amount** of (normal) protein made.
How is gene expression measured?
By the **amount of mRNA (or protein)** a gene produces. **More mRNA = more highly expressed**; near-zero mRNA = the gene is switched off.
Same gene, different mRNA amounts in two cell types — what does it mean?
The cells differ in **expression**, not in their DNA — the same gene is read more strongly in one cell (often an epigenetic difference).
Define osmosis.
The **net movement of water** across a **partially permeable membrane**, from a **higher** water potential to a **lower** water potential.
Define water potential.
A measure of **how freely water can move out** of a solution. **Pure water** has the highest water potential; adding solute lowers it.
What is solvation?
The process in which **water molecules surround and separate** each dissolved **solute** particle, holding it in solution.
What is a partially permeable membrane?
A membrane that lets **water** through but blocks (most of) the dissolved **solute** particles.
Which way does water move in osmosis?
From a **higher** water potential (dilute) to a **lower** water potential (concentrated).
What does adding solute do to water potential?
It **lowers** the water potential — the more concentrated the solution, the lower its water potential.
Which solution has the higher water potential — dilute or concentrated?
The **dilute** solution — it has fewer solutes and more free water, so a higher water potential.
What two conditions are required for osmosis across a membrane?
A **partially permeable membrane** AND a **difference in water potential** (a solute-concentration gradient).
Is osmosis active or passive?
**Passive** — it needs no energy (no ATP); water moves down its own gradient.
What happens when both sides of a membrane have equal water potential?
There is **no net movement** of water — water still crosses both ways, but in equal amounts (isotonic).
Why does a concentrated solution have fewer 'free' water molecules?
Because **solvation** ties up water molecules around the solute particles, leaving fewer free to move.
How do you predict the direction of osmosis from two solute concentrations?
The **more concentrated** side has the **lower** water potential, so water moves **into** it from the more dilute side.
Define osmolarity.
The **total concentration of solute particles** in a solution — more solute means a higher osmolarity.
Define osmosis.
The net movement of **water** across a partially permeable membrane, from a **lower** osmolarity (dilute) toward a **higher** osmolarity (concentrated).
Toward which side does water move by osmosis?
Toward the **higher osmolarity** — the more concentrated solution (the side with less water).
What is a hypotonic solution?
One with a **lower osmolarity** than the cell (more dilute). Water moves **into** the cell.
What is an isotonic solution?
One with the **same osmolarity** as the cell. There is **no net movement** of water.
What is a hypertonic solution?
One with a **higher osmolarity** than the cell (more concentrated). Water moves **out** of the cell.
What happens to a cell in a hypotonic solution?
Water moves **in**, so the cell **gains water and swells** (and without a wall it may burst).
What happens to a cell in a hypertonic solution?
Water moves **out**, so the cell **loses water and shrinks**.
What happens to a cell in an isotonic solution?
There is **no net movement** of water, so the cell **stays the same**.
Why is tonicity described as 'relative'?
A solution is only hypotonic / isotonic / hypertonic **compared to another** solution (or to the cell) — never on its own.
A tissue GAINS mass in a solution. What was the tonicity?
The solution was **hypotonic** — water moved into the tissue, so it gained mass.
A tissue LOSES mass in a solution. What was the tonicity?
The solution was **hypertonic** — water moved out of the tissue, so it lost mass.
A tissue shows NO mass change in a solution. What was the tonicity?
The solution was **isotonic** — no net movement of water, so no change in mass.
A walled cell's water potential is equal to what?
Its **solute potential + pressure potential** (Ψ = Ψs + Ψp).
Define water potential (Ψ).
A measure of the tendency of water to leave a cell or solution by osmosis. Water moves from a **higher** to a **lower** water potential.
Define solute potential (Ψs).
The part of the water potential caused by **dissolved solutes**. It is always **zero or negative** and lowers the water potential.
Define pressure potential (Ψp).
The part of the water potential caused by physical pressure — in a plant cell, the contents pushing on the **wall**. It **raises** the water potential.
How do solutes change the water potential?
They **lower** it (make it more negative), so they pull water into the cell.
How does the pressure potential change the water potential?
It **raises** it (makes it less negative) as the cell fills and the wall pushes back.
Which way does water move between two water potentials?
From the **higher** (less negative) water potential to the **lower** (more negative) one.
What happens to a plant cell in a hypotonic solution?
Water **enters**, the pressure potential rises, and the cell becomes **turgid** (firm). The wall stops it bursting.
What happens to a plant cell in a hypertonic solution?
Water **leaves**, the cell goes **flaccid**, and with more loss the membrane pulls from the wall — it is **plasmolysed**.
Why does a plant cell not burst in pure water?
Its rigid **cell wall** resists expansion, so water entry builds a **pressure potential** and the cell becomes turgid instead of bursting.
What is turgor?
The firmness of a plant cell when it is full of water and pushing against its wall — the result of a **high pressure potential**.
In a plasmolysed cell, what fills the gap between the contents and the wall?
The **external (surrounding) solution** that has drawn water out of the cell.
Why does a walled cell need TWO potentials and an animal cell needs only the solute one?
Only a **walled** cell can build a **pressure potential** as the wall pushes back; an animal cell has no wall, so no pressure term develops.
Define osmosis.
The net movement of **water** across a partially permeable membrane, from a **more dilute** solution to a **more concentrated** one.
Why are animal cells especially affected by tonicity?
They have **no cell wall** — only a flexible plasma membrane — so they can **burst** or **shrivel** as water moves in or out.
Define a hypotonic solution.
A solution that is **more dilute** than the inside of the cell (lower solute concentration); water moves **into** the cell.
Define an isotonic solution.
A solution with the **same** solute concentration as the cell; there is **no net movement** of water.
Define a hypertonic solution.
A solution that is **more concentrated** than the inside of the cell (higher solute concentration); water moves **out** of the cell.
What happens to an animal cell in a hypotonic solution?
Water enters by osmosis, so the cell **swells and may burst** — this bursting is called **lysis** (haemolysis in red blood cells).
What happens to an animal cell in an isotonic solution?
**No net movement** of water, so the cell **stays the same** shape and size.
What happens to an animal cell in a hypertonic solution?
Water leaves by osmosis, so the cell **shrinks and wrinkles** — this is called **crenation**.
What is lysis?
The **bursting** of a cell when too much water enters it by osmosis (haemolysis if it is a red blood cell).
What is crenation?
The **shrivelling / wrinkling** of an animal cell when water leaves it in a hypertonic solution.
Why do cells placed in distilled water burst?
Distilled (pure) water is strongly **hypotonic**, so water rushes in by osmosis and the cell **swells and bursts (lyses)**.
How can you deduce the tonicity of a solution from a cell's appearance?
**Burst/swollen = hypotonic; unchanged = isotonic; shrunken/crenated = hypertonic** — read the cell's shape backwards.
What is osmoregulation?
The **control of water balance** in a cell or organism — keeping the internal water content steady.
How does a Paramecium avoid bursting in fresh water?
A **contractile vacuole** collects the excess water that enters by osmosis and **pumps it back out** of the cell.
Define osmosis.
The **net movement of water** across a partially permeable membrane, from a **higher water potential (dilute)** to a **lower water potential (concentrated)**.
What is the cell wall's role in osmosis?
It is **fully permeable** (water passes through), but it **resists pressure** so the cell does not burst — making the cell turgid instead.
Define turgor pressure.
The **outward pressure** of the cell contents pushing against the cell wall when a plant cell has taken in water.
What does 'turgid' mean?
A plant cell that is **full of water and firm**, with the contents pressing hard against the wall (high turgor pressure).
What does 'flaccid' mean?
A plant cell that has **lost water and is limp**, with little or no turgor pressure pushing on the wall.
Define plasmolysis.
When a plant cell loses so much water that the **cytoplasm and membrane pull away from the cell wall**.
What happens to a plant cell in a HYPOTONIC solution?
Water **enters** by osmosis → the cell swells but the wall stops it bursting → it becomes **turgid**.
What happens to a plant cell in an ISOTONIC solution?
**No net water movement** → low turgor → the cell is **flaccid** (limp).
What happens to a plant cell in a HYPERTONIC solution?
Water **leaves** by osmosis → the cell loses turgor and becomes **plasmolysed** → the tissue wilts.
In a plasmolysed cell, what fills the gap between the contents and the wall?
The **external (bathing) solution** — the fully permeable wall lets it flow in.
Why does a plant cell NOT burst in pure water, but an animal cell does?
The plant cell's **strong wall resists the pressure** (it becomes turgid). The animal cell has **no wall**, so it keeps swelling and bursts.
In a data experiment, what does a solution that causes NO net mass change tell you?
It is **isotonic** — the same concentration as the cell contents, so it estimates the cells' own **internal concentration**.
Which way does water move relative to solute concentration?
Towards the **more concentrated** solution (lower water potential). To plasmolyse a cell the outside must be the more concentrated one.
Define sexual reproduction.
Reproduction involving **two parents** and the **fusion of two gametes** to form the new organism.
Define asexual reproduction.
Reproduction involving **one parent** and **no fusion of gametes** — the offspring are genetically identical to the parent.
What is a gamete?
A **sex cell** (such as a sperm or an egg) that fuses with another gamete at fertilisation.
What is fertilisation?
The **fusion of two gametes** to form a single new cell.
What is a clone?
An organism that is **genetically identical** to its parent.
How many parents does sexual reproduction need? Asexual?
Sexual reproduction needs **two** parents; asexual reproduction needs **one**.
Which type of cell division does sexual reproduction use to make gametes?
**Meiosis** (followed by fertilisation when the gametes fuse).
Which type of cell division does asexual reproduction use?
**Mitosis** only — it copies the genes exactly.
Why are asexual offspring genetically identical to the parent?
There is **one parent** and only **mitosis**, so the genome is copied exactly — no gametes, no mixing of alleles.
Name the three sources of genetic variation in sexual reproduction.
**Two parents** (different alleles), **meiosis** (shuffles alleles into different gametes) and **random fertilisation** (any gamete can fuse with any other).
Why is genetic variation useful to a species?
It gives the species the **raw material for natural selection** to act on if the environment changes.
A plant is grown from a cutting of one parent. How similar is its genome to the parent's?
**Genetically identical** — a cutting is asexual reproduction, so the genome is copied unchanged (a clone).
What is a clone?
An organism (or cell) that is **genetically identical** to the one it came from.
Define asexual reproduction.
Reproduction from a **single parent**, **without gametes or fertilisation**, producing offspring genetically identical to the parent.
Which type of cell division produces clones, and why are they identical?
**Mitosis** — it copies the parent's DNA exactly, so there is **no genetic variation**.
How do yeast cells reproduce?
By **budding** — a small outgrowth (bud) receives a copy of the genetic material and then **pinches off** as a smaller, identical daughter cell.
Give two examples of NATURAL cloning.
**Budding** (yeast, Hydra) and plant **runners / tubers / bulbs** (e.g. strawberry, potato).
What is vegetative propagation?
Cloning a plant by growing a new plant from a part of the parent — e.g. a **stem cutting** encouraged to grow roots.
How would you clone a plant from a stem cutting?
Take a cutting from the parent, **encourage it to grow roots**, and raise a plant **genetically identical** to the parent.
What is tissue culture (micropropagation)?
Growing **many identical plantlets** from a few cells of one plant on a sterile **nutrient medium**.
Which method successfully cloned an adult animal, and what famous animal resulted?
**Somatic-cell nuclear transfer (SCNT)** — it produced **Dolly the sheep**.
Outline the key steps of SCNT.
Take a **body-cell nucleus** → put it into an **egg whose nucleus was removed** → **stimulate** it into an embryo → **implant** in a surrogate mother.
In SCNT, which nucleus is kept and which is removed?
The **adult body-cell nucleus** is kept (and transferred); the **egg's own nucleus is removed**.
Predict how similar five plants grown from one parent's runners will be.
**Genetically identical** to each other and the parent — they are clones made by mitosis, so there is **no variation**.
Is cloning sexual or asexual reproduction?
**Asexual** — it uses one parent and no fertilisation, so the offspring are clones.
What is a gamete?
A **sex cell** (sperm or egg) used in sexual reproduction. Gametes are **haploid**.
Where are sperm made? Where are eggs made?
Sperm are made in the **testes**; eggs are made in the **ovaries**.
What type of cell division makes gametes?
**Meiosis** — it halves the chromosome number, producing **haploid** cells.
What does 'haploid' mean?
Having **one set** of chromosomes (n). Human gametes are haploid (23 chromosomes).
What does 'diploid' mean?
Having **two sets** of chromosomes (2n) — one from each parent. Most body cells are diploid (46 chromosomes).
Define fertilization.
The **fusion of a sperm nucleus with an egg nucleus** to form a diploid zygote.
What is a zygote?
The single **diploid (2n)** cell formed when a sperm fertilizes an egg; it divides to form an embryo.
Why must gametes be haploid?
So that at fertilization the diploid number is **restored**, not **doubled** — keeping the chromosome number constant each generation.
Where does fertilization usually take place?
In the **oviduct (fallopian tube)**.
How does a sperm differ from an egg?
Sperm are **small, many and swim** with a tail (little food); the egg is **large, few, cannot swim** and has a big **food store**.
Trace the path of sperm in the male system.
Made in the **testis** → carried by the **sperm duct** → out through the **urethra**.
Trace the path of an egg in the female system.
Released from the **ovary** → travels along the **oviduct** → reaches the **uterus**.
What stops more than one sperm fertilizing the egg?
Once one sperm enters, the egg membrane **changes to block any other sperm** (preventing extra chromosomes).
In symbols, what happens at fertilization?
**n + n → 2n** — two haploid gametes fuse into one diploid zygote.
How long is a typical menstrual cycle?
About **28 days**.
Which two menstrual hormones come from the pituitary gland?
**FSH** and **LH**.
Which two menstrual hormones come from the ovary?
**Oestrogen** (from the follicle) and **progesterone** (from the corpus luteum).
What is the role of FSH?
It **stimulates a follicle in the ovary to grow** and mature.
What is the role of oestrogen?
It **repairs and thickens the uterus lining**, and when high it **triggers the LH surge**.
What causes ovulation, and when?
A sharp **LH surge** from the pituitary, around **day 14**.
What is the corpus luteum?
What the **empty follicle becomes** after ovulation; it secretes **progesterone**.
What are the roles of progesterone?
It **maintains the thick uterus lining** and **inhibits FSH and LH** (negative feedback).
What happens at the end of the cycle if there is no pregnancy?
**Progesterone falls**, the lining breaks down (**menstruation**), and a new cycle begins.
Give an example of positive feedback in the cycle.
**High oestrogen stimulates the LH surge** — a high level causes a bigger release.
Give an example of negative feedback in the cycle.
**Oestrogen and progesterone inhibit FSH and LH**, stopping extra follicles ripening.
On a hormone graph, what does a tall narrow LH spike around day 14 show?
**Ovulation** — the LH surge triggers the release of the egg.
Which hormone maintains the uterus lining in the second half of the cycle?
**Progesterone**, made by the corpus luteum.
What is a flower?
The **reproductive organ** of a flowering plant; it holds the male and female parts.
What is the male part of a flower made of?
The **stamen** = an **anther** (makes pollen) on a **filament** (stalk).
What is the female part of a flower made of?
The **carpel** = a **stigma** (catches pollen), a **style**, and an **ovary** containing **ovules**.
What does the anther do?
It **makes and holds pollen grains**, which carry the male gametes.
What does the stigma do?
It is the **sticky tip** that **catches and holds pollen** grains that land on it.
Define pollination.
The **transfer of pollen from an anther to a stigma**.
Define fertilization (in a plant).
The **fusion of a male gamete with the female gamete (egg)** inside the ovule, forming a zygote.
Which comes first — pollination or fertilization?
**Pollination** first (pollen onto the stigma); **fertilization** second (gametes fuse in the ovule).
How does the male gamete reach the ovule?
A **pollen tube grows down the style** from the pollen grain, carrying the male gamete to the ovule.
What does the ovule become after fertilization?
A **seed** (containing the embryo and a food store).
What does the ovary become after fertilization?
A **fruit**, which surrounds the seeds and helps disperse them.
What are self-incompatibility alleles?
Alleles that make a plant's stigma **reject its own pollen**, so it cannot fertilise itself.
Why do self-incompatibility alleles benefit a plant?
They **force cross-pollination**, which **increases genetic variation** in the offspring.
Which plants are most likely to cross-pollinate?
Plants that **cannot fertilise themselves** — e.g. those with self-incompatibility or with male and female parts that mature at different times.
Define a gene.
A **length of DNA that codes for one characteristic** (e.g. the gene for stem length).
Define an allele.
One particular **version of a gene** (e.g. a 'tall' allele and a 'short' allele).
Define genotype.
The **alleles an organism carries** for a gene — written as a pair of letters, e.g. **Tt**.
Define phenotype.
The **observable characteristic** an organism shows, produced by its genotype (e.g. 'tall').
What is a dominant allele, and how is it written?
An allele whose effect **shows with only one copy**; written as a **capital letter** (e.g. T).
What is a recessive allele, and how is it written?
An allele whose effect **shows only with two copies**; written as a **small letter** (e.g. t).
What does homozygous mean? Give examples.
Having **two of the same allele** for a gene — e.g. **TT** (homozygous dominant) or **tt** (homozygous recessive).
What does heterozygous mean? Give an example.
Having **two different alleles** for a gene — e.g. **Tt**.
Why is a recessive allele hidden in a heterozygote?
The **dominant allele is expressed and masks** the recessive one, so the recessive characteristic is not shown.
When does a recessive phenotype appear?
Only in a **homozygous-recessive** organism (e.g. tt) — one with **no dominant allele** to mask the recessive one.
What is a monohybrid cross?
A cross that follows the inheritance of **one gene** (with two alleles) from parents to offspring.
Why does each gamete carry only one allele of a gene?
Because the two alleles **segregate** during meiosis — one goes into each gamete.
What is the difference between genotype and phenotype?
**Genotype** = the alleles you carry (e.g. Bb); **phenotype** = the observable characteristic those alleles produce.
What genotype and phenotype ratios come from Bb × Bb?
Genotype **1 BB : 2 Bb : 1 bb**; phenotype **3 dominant : 1 recessive**.
Two carrier parents — what is the chance of an affected child?
**1/4 (25%)** each pregnancy, because only the homozygous-recessive (e.g. dd) cell is affected.
Why can two unaffected parents have an affected child?
The disease allele is **recessive**: both parents are unaffected **carriers** (Dd), and if both pass on d the child is **dd** and affected.
How do you turn a Punnett-grid ratio into a probability?
Each of the four cells is equally likely, so count the matching cells out of 4 (e.g. **1 in 4 = 1/4 = 25%**).
Define incomplete dominance.
Neither allele is fully dominant, so the **heterozygote shows a new, intermediate (blended)** phenotype (e.g. red × white → **pink**).
Define codominance.
Both alleles are **fully expressed at the same time** in the heterozygote — you see **both** phenotypes together (not a blend).
What are multiple alleles?
A gene with **more than two** alleles in the population (e.g. ABO has **I^A, I^B and i**), though each individual still carries only **two**.
F2 phenotype ratio from two pink (incomplete-dominance) flowers?
**1 red : 2 pink : 1 white** — the phenotype ratio equals the 1 : 2 : 1 genotype ratio because every genotype is visible.
How do you tell incomplete dominance from codominance?
**Incomplete dominance** = a single **blended** phenotype. **Codominance** = **both** phenotypes shown **together** (side by side).
Why are codominant/incomplete alleles written as capitals with superscripts (e.g. C^R, C^W)?
Because **neither allele is recessive**, so neither should be written lower case — superscripts keep them equal.
Which ABO alleles are codominant, and which is recessive?
**I^A and I^B are codominant** (both expressed → group AB); both are **dominant to i**, which is **recessive** (group O = i i).
Give the genotype(s) for each ABO blood group.
A = I^A I^A or I^A i; B = I^B I^B or I^B i; **AB = I^A I^B**; **O = i i**.
Why is ABO blood group an example of discrete variation?
Each genotype maps to one of only **four separate groups** (A, B, AB, O) with **no in-betweens** — distinct categories, not a continuous range.
What are the sex chromosomes in a human female and a human male?
**Female = XX**, **male = XY**.
What are autosomes?
The **22 pairs of chromosomes that are not the sex chromosomes** — the same in males and females.
Which parent's gamete determines the sex of a baby, and why?
The **father's sperm** — the egg always carries X, but a sperm carries **X or Y** (X→girl, Y→boy).
What does 'sex-linked' mean?
The gene is carried on a **sex chromosome (usually the X)**, so its inheritance is tied to the offspring's sex.
How do we write the alleles of an X-linked gene?
**On the X** — e.g. **Xᴮ** (dominant) and **Xᵇ** (recessive); the **Y has no matching allele**, written just **Y**.
Why is an X-linked recessive condition more common in males?
Males have **only one X** and the **Y has no matching allele**, so a **single recessive allele shows**; a female needs it on **both** X chromosomes.
What is a carrier (for an X-linked recessive condition)?
An **unaffected female (XᴮXᵇ)** who has one recessive allele, masked by the dominant allele on her other X; she can still pass it on.
Deduce the possible genotypes of an unaffected female for colour blindness.
**XᴮXᴮ (homozygous dominant)** or **XᴮXᵇ (carrier)** — you usually can't tell which from her phenotype.
In a carrier mother (XᴮXᵇ) × unaffected father (XᴮY) cross, who can be colour-blind?
Only **sons** — about **half** are colour-blind (XᵇY); **no daughter is affected**, though half are carriers.
In a pedigree, what shapes are used for males and females?
**Square = male**, **circle = female**.
In a pedigree, what does a filled (shaded) symbol mean?
The person is **affected** — they show the condition. A clear symbol means unaffected.
What is a carrier?
An **unaffected** person who carries one copy of a recessive allele (e.g. genotype Dd) and can pass it on.
How can you tell from a pedigree that a condition is recessive?
**Two unaffected parents have an affected child** — a dominant allele cannot hide in an unaffected parent.
How can you tell from a pedigree that a condition is dominant?
The trait appears in **every generation** (no skipping) and affected children usually have an **affected parent**.
How does a pedigree show an allele is NOT X-linked?
A father gives his **X to every daughter** and his **Y to every son** — so an **affected son** or an **unaffected daughter** of an affected father means the allele is **autosomal**.
An affected father passes which sex chromosome to a son, and which to a daughter?
His **Y** to a son; his **X** to a daughter.
An unaffected woman has a child with an autosomal recessive condition. What is her genotype?
She must be a **carrier (Dd)** — heterozygous.
What is the genotype of someone affected by an autosomal dominant condition (allele D)?
**DD or Dd** — at least one dominant D allele.
What do the Roman numerals (I, II, III) on a pedigree show?
Each **generation**, oldest at the **top**.
What is a karyogram?
A chart of a cell's chromosomes **arranged in homologous pairs by size** (and banding pattern).
What three things can a karyogram tell you?
The **chromosome number**, the **sex** (XX/XY), and whether any chromosome is **extra or missing**.
How do you read the SEX from a human karyogram?
Look at the **last (23rd) pair**: **XX = female**, **XY = male** (a large X next to a small Y).
How would you compare another species' karyogram with a human one?
Compare the **chromosome number**, the **relative sizes** of the chromosomes, and the **banding pattern**.
What is a DNA profile (DNA fingerprint)?
A pattern of **DNA bands** that is almost **unique to an individual**, used to identify people and their relatives.
State the golden rule for reading a parentage DNA profile.
**Every band in the child must match a band in one of its two parents** — a candidate missing a band is ruled out.
How do you identify a father from a paternity DNA profile?
Remove the bands the child shares with the **mother**; the **true father must have all the remaining bands**.
Name three ways sexual reproduction generates variation.
**Crossing over** and **independent assortment** in meiosis, plus **random fertilisation**.
Why is every offspring (except identical twins) genetically unique?
Meiosis makes genetically different **gametes**, and **random fertilisation** combines two of them into a new mix of alleles.
Define homeostasis.
Keeping the body's **internal environment** near a constant **set point**, despite changes outside.
What is a 'set point'?
The **normal value** a regulated variable is held close to (e.g. ~37 °C core temperature, ~pH 7.4 blood).
Name four blood/body variables kept constant by homeostasis.
**Blood glucose**, **temperature**, **blood pH**, and **water/solute balance**.
Define negative feedback.
A control loop where the **response opposes the change**, returning the variable toward its set point.
List the stages of a homeostatic control loop, in order.
**Stimulus → receptor → control centre → effector → response** (the response opposes the change).
Why is it called NEGATIVE feedback?
Because the response acts in the **opposite direction** to the change — a rise triggers a fall, a fall triggers a rise.
How does positive feedback differ from negative feedback?
Positive feedback **amplifies** the change (drives it further from normal); it is **not** homeostatic.
Give one example of positive feedback in the body.
The **LH surge** before ovulation (or **oxytocin** in childbirth) — the change is amplified to drive a process to completion.
Which brain structure is the control centre for several homeostatic loops?
The **hypothalamus** — it compares the variable with the set point and signals the effectors.
What is thermoregulation?
Keeping the **core body temperature** close to a set point (about **37 °C**) despite changes in the environment.
Which type of feedback controls body temperature?
**Negative feedback** — the response opposes the change and returns temperature to the set point.
Which part of the brain is the temperature control centre?
The **hypothalamus** — it acts as the body's thermostat.
What two responses cool the body when it is too HOT?
**Vasodilation** (skin arterioles widen → more heat radiated) and **sweating** (evaporation removes heat).
What responses warm the body when it is too COLD?
**Vasoconstriction** (less heat lost), **shivering** (muscle respiration makes heat) and **non-shivering thermogenesis** in brown fat.
What is the difference between vasodilation and vasoconstriction?
**Vasodilation** = skin arterioles widen to **lose** heat (too hot); **vasoconstriction** = they narrow to **conserve** heat (too cold).
How does brown adipose tissue raise body temperature?
By **non-shivering thermogenesis** — it **oxidises lipids** and releases the energy **directly as heat**.
How does shivering raise body temperature?
Rapid **skeletal-muscle contractions** increase **respiration**, releasing **heat**.
Why is vasodilation a cooling response?
Widening the skin arterioles brings **more blood near the surface**, so **more heat is radiated/lost**.
Is thermoregulation an example of positive or negative feedback, and why?
**Negative feedback** — the response (e.g. sweating, shivering) **opposes** the temperature change.
Which organ monitors and controls blood glucose?
The **pancreas** — it secretes insulin and glucagon.
Name the two hormones that regulate blood glucose.
**Insulin** (lowers high glucose) and **glucagon** (raises low glucose).
What does insulin do, and when is it released?
Released when glucose is **too high**: it makes **liver and muscle cells take up glucose** and store it as **glycogen**, lowering blood glucose.
What does glucagon do, and when is it released?
Released when glucose is **too low**: it makes the **liver break glycogen down** into glucose, raising blood glucose.
What is glycogen?
The **storage form of glucose** (many glucose units), kept mainly in the **liver and muscles**.
What does 'antagonistic hormones' mean here?
Insulin and glucagon have **opposite effects** — one lowers glucose, the other raises it.
Why is blood glucose control negative feedback?
Each response **opposes the change** and returns glucose to its **set point**, holding it within narrow limits.
On a graph, what explains blood glucose FALLING after a meal?
Glucose rose → **insulin** released → cells **take up and store** glucose as glycogen → glucose falls.
Glucagon vs glycogen — what's the difference?
**Glucagon** is the **hormone** that raises glucose; **glycogen** is the **storage molecule**.
What is the normal set point for blood pH?
About **pH 7.4** (slightly alkaline).
Why does a rise in blood CO2 lower the blood pH?
CO2 dissolves to form **carbonic acid**, which releases **H+**, making the blood **more acidic** (lower pH).
What detects a change in blood pH / CO2?
**Chemoreceptors** — in the **medulla** of the brain and in the walls of the **aorta** and **carotid arteries**.
Which part of the brain controls breathing rate?
The **medulla** (in the brainstem).
What does the body do when blood pH falls below 7.4?
It **increases ventilation rate and depth** (breathes faster and deeper) to **remove more CO2** and raise pH back to the set point.
What does the body do when blood pH rises above 7.4?
It **decreases ventilation** so **CO2 is retained**, which lowers pH back to the set point.
Why is blood-pH control an example of negative feedback?
Because the response **reverses the change** (pH down → breathe faster → CO2 removed → pH up) and then switches off at the set point.
Which gas, not oxygen, mainly drives the urge to breathe?
**CO2** — rising CO2 (and falling pH) is what the chemoreceptors mainly sense.
Which part of the brain is the appetite control centre?
The **hypothalamus**.
What is the source, target and function of leptin?
Source: **adipose (fat) tissue**; target: the **hypothalamus**; function: **suppresses appetite**.
Where is ghrelin made and what does it do?
Made by the **(empty) stomach**; it **stimulates appetite** (the 'hunger hormone').
Name two hormones that suppress appetite and where they come from.
**Leptin** (from adipose/fat tissue) and **insulin** (from the pancreas).
Why does more body fat lead to a stronger 'stop eating' signal?
More fat tissue secretes **more leptin**, which acts on the hypothalamus to **suppress appetite**.
What does thyroxin do, and where is it made?
Made by the **thyroid gland**; it sets the **basal metabolic rate** (how fast cells use energy).
A patient is tired, gaining weight and feels cold. Which hormone is likely low?
**Thyroxin** — too little lowers the metabolic rate, causing these symptoms.
Define the independent variable.
The single factor you deliberately **change** (manipulate) — the cause you are testing. Plotted on the **x-axis**.
Define the dependent variable.
The factor you **measure** as the outcome; it **depends on** the independent variable. Plotted on the **y-axis**.
Define a controlled variable.
A factor kept **constant** in every trial so it cannot affect the result — this keeps the test **fair**.
Controlled variable vs control treatment — what's the difference?
A **controlled variable** is a factor held **constant**. A **control treatment** is a whole **baseline run** with the tested factor **absent**, used for comparison.
Why must you change only ONE independent variable?
If two things change together you get a **confounding variable** — you can't tell which factor caused the result, so the test is **invalid**.
What is the percentage-change formula (treatment vs control)?
$\%\ \text{change} = \dfrac{\text{final} - \text{initial}}{\text{initial}} \times 100$. Use the **control** value as the 'initial'.
How should you name a controlled variable in the exam?
**Specifically**, with its quantity (e.g. 'temperature at 22 °C', 'volume of solution'), never 'keep everything the same'.
State the equation for an Rf value.
$R_f = \dfrac{\text{distance moved by the pigment}}{\text{distance moved by the solvent}}$ — both measured from the start line. It has **no units** and is always between **0 and 1**.
A pigment moves 45 mm; the solvent moves 90 mm. What is the Rf?
Rf = 45 ÷ 90 = **0.50** (no units, because it is a ratio of two lengths).
On a chromatogram, which pigment is the most soluble?
The one that travels **furthest** — it has the **highest Rf**. The lowest Rf is the least soluble.
How do quadrats let you estimate a whole population?
Count in several quadrats, take a **mean per quadrat**, find the **density (number per m²)**, then **scale up** to the total habitat area. Using a mean of many quadrats improves reliability.
What does gel electrophoresis separate, and how?
It separates **DNA fragments by SIZE**: DNA is negatively charged, so an electric field pulls it through the gel and the **smallest fragments travel furthest**.
Which technique amplifies DNA, and which instrument measures respiration rate?
**PCR** amplifies (copies) DNA; a **respirometer** measures respiration rate (oxygen used per unit time).
What is a replicate, and why take several?
A **replicate** is one repeat of the same measurement. Several let you take a **mean** (reducing random error), **spot anomalies**, and check the result is **repeatable**.
How do you make a result more reliable?
**Repeat each measurement more times and take the mean.** More replicates even out random error and make an anomaly stand out.
Formula: the mean of a set of repeats?
$\bar{x} = \dfrac{\sum x}{n}$ — add the readings and divide by how many there are. The spread (range $=$ max $-$ min, or the standard deviation) shows how reliable the repeats are: small spread = reliable.
Reliable vs valid vs accurate?
**Reliable** = repeats of the same method agree. **Valid** = a fair test of the claim (a control + only one variable changed). **Accurate** = close to the true value.
How do you spot an anomaly?
It sits **far outside the other repeats**. You re-check it or leave it out of the mean — which is only possible because you took several repeats.
How do you EVALUATE whether data support a claim?
State **what the data show** (e.g. the means differ), then **weigh it against the limitations** (small sample, big spread/overlap, no control) for a **balanced** judgement.
What makes an improvement answer score the mark?
A **fix PLUS a matched reason** — e.g. 'more replicates **so the mean is more reliable**' or 'add a control **so the effect is shown to be due to the variable**'. A bare fix scores half.
What is the magnification formula?
$M = \dfrac{\text{image size}}{\text{actual size}}$ — both in the **same unit**. It's a ratio, so it has **no units** (write $\times N$).
How do you calculate a real (actual) size?
Rearrange the triangle: $\text{actual} = \dfrac{\text{image size}}{M}$. Convert to one unit, then **divide the image size by the magnification**.
How do you use a scale bar to find magnification?
Measure the bar on the image (e.g. $40\text{ mm} = 40\,000\ \mu\text{m}$), read the real distance it represents (e.g. $80\ \mu\text{m}$), then $M = 40\,000 \div 80 = \times 500$.
How do you convert mm to µm (and why)?
**Multiply by 1000** ($1\text{ mm} = 1000\ \mu\text{m}$). Image lengths are in mm but cells are in µm — match units **before** dividing or you'll be 1000× out.
If each division on an image is 2.5 µm and a cell spans 20 divisions, how long is it?
Real size = divisions × µm per division = $20 \times 2.5 = 50\ \mu\text{m}$.
What equipment measures a cell's size down the microscope?
An **eyepiece graticule**, calibrated against a **stage micrometer** (not a plain ruler).
How do you 'read off' a value from a graph?
Find the **x-value**, go **up to the curve**, **across to the y-axis**, read the height — and write it **with its unit**.
Interpolate vs extrapolate?
**Interpolate** = estimate a value **between** plotted points (safe). **Extrapolate** = predict a value **beyond** the data (a prediction — the trend may not hold).
Estimating y between two points — what's the quick method?
Take roughly the **midpoint** of the neighbouring readings, e.g. $y \approx \dfrac{30 + 42}{2} = 36$ (with the unit).
What must a full 'describe the trend' answer contain?
**Direction first** (rises/falls), then the **change of pattern** (plateau or peak), each backed by **figures** from the graph.
What must a 'compare and contrast' answer contain?
At least **one similarity AND one difference** between the series, each supported by a **value** from the data.
What does a 'predict' answer need besides a value?
A **reason** drawn from the trend — and you should flag it as a prediction (extrapolation), since the trend might change.
Why is '44' wrong but '44 µmol min⁻¹' right?
A value with **no unit** scores nothing — always quote the **unit** read from the axis.
Formula: percentage change
$\% \text{ change} = \dfrac{\text{new} - \text{old}}{\text{old}} \times 100$ — always divide the CHANGE by the OLD value. A negative answer is a percentage decrease.
Formula: rate from a graph
rate $= \dfrac{\text{change in quantity}}{\text{time}} = \dfrac{\text{rise}}{\text{run}}$ — the GRADIENT of the line. Take two points and divide; always write the units.
Formula: ratio / index
ratio = part ÷ whole, e.g. mitotic index $= \dfrac{\text{dividing cells}}{\text{total cells}}$. Can be a fraction, decimal, percentage or A : B.
Percentage change vs 'percentage of'
**% change** = (new − old) ÷ old × 100 (how much it moved). **% of** = part ÷ whole × 100 (what share it is). Read which one the question asks.
How do you find the range of a data set?
range = largest value − smallest value.
Why must a rate have units?
A rate is a quantity PER unit time; without the unit (e.g. cm³ s⁻¹, breaths min⁻¹) it is incomplete and loses the mark.
What is the formula for the mean?
$\bar{x} = \dfrac{\sum x}{n}$ — **add all the values and divide by how many there are** ($n$). The mean keeps the same units as the data.
Mean vs median vs mode?
**Mean** = add-up-and-divide average. **Median** = the **middle** value in order. **Mode** = the **most common** value (tallest bar on a frequency graph).
What does standard deviation (s) measure?
How **spread out** the data are around the mean. **Small s** = tightly clustered; **large s** = widely scattered. You find it on your GDC, not by hand.
What does an error bar represent?
The **spread** of the data — usually **± one standard deviation** about the mean. Its total height = 2s; a longer bar means more spread (less reliable).
State the overlap rule for error bars.
Error bars **OVERLAP → difference NOT significant**. Error bars with a **clear gap (no overlap) → difference IS significant**.
On a box-and-whisker plot, what are the key features?
**Median** = line inside the box; **box** = lower quartile (Q1) to upper quartile (Q3) = middle 50%; **whiskers** = min and max; a **separate point** = an **outlier**.
Which test compares counts against an expected ratio (or tests an association)?
The **chi-squared (χ²) test** — it is for **counts/frequencies**, e.g. testing a 3:1 genetic ratio.
Which test compares two means of a measured variable?
The **t-test** — use it to ask whether **two averages** are significantly different.
What is the chi-squared formula?
$\chi^2 = \sum \dfrac{(O-E)^2}{E}$ — where **O** = observed count, **E** = expected count; add one term per category.
How do you decide if a result is statistically significant?
Compare the **calculated** statistic to the **critical value** at **p = 0.05**: if **calculated ≥ critical**, it is **significant** (p < 0.05) → reject H₀.
What are the null (H₀) and alternative (H₁) hypotheses?
**H₀**: there is **no** real difference/association (any difference is chance). **H₁**: there **is** a real difference/association.
What do overlapping error bars suggest about two means?
That the means are **probably not significantly different** — a t-test would give t below the critical value (p > 0.05).
How do you find degrees of freedom?
For **χ²**: (number of categories − 1). For a **t-test of two groups**: $df = n_1 + n_2 - 2$. The df picks the row of the critical-value table.
Positive vs negative correlation?
**Positive**: as one variable rises, the other **rises** (line slopes up). **Negative**: as one rises, the other **falls** (line slopes down).
What does the correlation coefficient r tell you, and what is its range?
It measures a linear correlation from **−1 to +1**: the **sign** = direction (+ together, − opposite) and the **size** (how close to ±1) = **strength**. $r ≈ 0$ = no linear relationship.
How is the coefficient of determination R² related to r?
**$R^2 = r^2$.** It is the **fraction (or %) of the variation** in y explained by x. e.g. $r = 0.9 → R^2 = 0.81 →$ ~81% explained. Given R², $r = \pm\sqrt{R^2}$.
Why does correlation NOT prove causation?
A **third (confounding) variable** or coincidence could cause both. Only a **controlled experiment** can establish that one variable causes a change in another.
How do you DESCRIBE a relationship shown by a graph?
State the **direction** (positive/negative correlation) **and** quote a **figure/comparison** from the data — not just 'there is a relationship'.
r = −0.9 vs r = +0.9 — which is stronger?
**Equally strong** — strength depends on $|r|$ (how close to 1), not the sign. They differ only in **direction**.
State Simpson's reciprocal diversity index formula.
$D = \dfrac{N(N-1)}{\sum n(n-1)}$ — where $N$ = total individuals (all species) and $n$ = individuals of each species. Higher $D$ = more diverse (minimum 1).
State the Lincoln (capture–mark–recapture) index formula.
$N = \dfrac{n_1 \times n_2}{n_3}$ — $n_1$ = marked & released, $n_2$ = second catch, $n_3$ = marked individuals in the second catch, $N$ = estimated total.
In Simpson's index, what are $N$ and $n$?
$N$ = the TOTAL number of individuals of ALL species added together; $n$ = the number of individuals of ONE particular species.
Two communities have the same number of species — why might their $D$ differ?
Because $D$ also depends on **evenness**. A community dominated by one species has a LOWER $D$ than one where individuals are spread evenly.
Name two assumptions of the Lincoln index.
Marks don't harm the animals or change catchability; marked animals mix back fully; no births, deaths or migration between samples; marks aren't lost.
How do you use Simpson's index to measure biodiversity CHANGE over time?
Sample the same site with the same method each year, calculate $D$ each time, and compare — a rising $D$ means biodiversity is increasing.
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